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Download AIIMS PG 2011 May Question paper with Answers

Download AIIMS PG 2011 May Question paper with Answers (All India Institute of Medical Sciences Postgraduate)

This post was last modified on 30 July 2021

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AIIMS PG Last10 Years 2011-2021 Previous Question Papers with Answer Keys (Solved Question Papers)

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AIIMS PG MAY 2011 (Based on Memory)

A dead born foetus does not have:
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1. Rigor mortis at birth.
2. Adipocere formation.
3. Maceration.
4. Mummification.
Ans: 2
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False sense of perception without any external object or stimulus is known as:
1. Illusion.
2. Impulse.
3. Hallucination.
4. Phobia.
Ans: 3
Species identification is done by:
1. Neutron activation analysis (N.A.A.).
2. Precipitin test.
3. Benziine test.
4. Spectroscopy.
Ans: 2

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In a suspected case of death due to poisoning where cadaveric rigidity is lasting longer than usual, it may be a case of poisoning due to:
1. Lead
2. Arsenic.
3. Mercury.
4. Copper.
Ans: 2
'Whip-lash' injuries is caused due to:
1. A fall from a height.
2. A cute hyperextension of the spine.
3. A blow on top to head.
4. A cute hyper flexion of the spine.
Ans:
All of the following form radiolucent stones except:
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1. Xanthine.
2. Cysteine.
3. Allopurinol.
4. Orotic acid.
Ans: 2
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A young female presents with history of dyspnoea on exertion. On examination, she has wide, fixed split of S2 with ejection systolic murmur (III/VI) in left second intercostals space. Her EKG shows left axis deviation. The most probable diagnosis is:
Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainge.
1. Tricuspid atresia.
2. Ostium primum atrial septal defect.
3. Ventricular septal defect with pulmonary arterial hypertension.
Ans: 3
Which test is performed to detect reversible myocardial ischemia?
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1. Coronary angiography.
2. MUGA scan.
3. Thallium scan.
4. Resting echocardiography.
Ans: 3
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A 62 years old man with caracioma of lung presented to emergency department with respiratory distress. His EKG showed electrical alternans. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Pneumothorax.
2. Pleural effusion.
3. Cardiac tamponade.
4. Constrictive pericarditis.
Ans: 3
Atrial fibrillation may occur in all of the following conditions, except:
1. Mitral stenosis.
2. Hypothyroidism.
3. Dilated cardiomyopathy.
4. Mitral regurgitation.
Ans: 2

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A patient with recent-onset primary generalized epilepsy develops drug reaction and skin rash due to phenytoin sodium, The most appropriate to clonazepam.
1. Shift to clonazepam.
2. Restsrt phenytoin sodium after 2 weeks.
3. Shift to sodium valproate.
4. Shift to ethosuximide.
Ans: 3
Which of the following is the commonest location of hypertensive hemorrhage?
1. Pons.
2. Thalamus.
3. Putamen/external capsule.
4. Cerebellum.
Ans: 3
Which of the following is the most common central nervous sustem parastic infection?
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1. Echinococcosis.
2. Sparganosis.
3. Paragonimiasis.
4. Neurocysticercosis.
Ans: 4
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Which of the following is the most common tumor associated with type I neurofibromatosis?
Optic nerve glioma.
1. Meningioma.
2. Acoustic Schwannoma.
3. Low grade astrocytoma.
Ans: 1
A patient undergoing surgery suddenly develops hypotension. The monitor shows that the end tidal carbon dioxide has decreased abruptly by 15mmHg. What is the probable diagnosis?
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1. Hypothermia.
2. Pulmonary embolism
3. Massive fluid deficit
4. Myocardial depression due to anesthetic agents.
Ans: 2
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The commonest cause of death in a patient with primary amyloidosis is
1. Renal failure
2. Cardiac involvement
3. Bleeding diathesis
4. Respiratory failure
Ans: 1
A middle aged old man, with chronic renal failure is diagnosed to have sputum positive pulmonary tuberculosis. His creatinine clearance is 25ml/min. All of the following drugs need modification in doses except:
1. Isoniazid
2. Streptomycin
3. Rifampicin
4. Ethambutol.
Ans: 3

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An HIV-positive patient is on anti retroviral therapy with zidovudine, lamivudine and indinavir. He is proven to be suffering from genitor-urinary tuberculosis. Which one of the following drugs not is given to this patient?
1. Isoniazid
2. Rifampicin
3. Pyrazinamide
4. Ethambutol
Ans: 2
A high amylase level in pleural fluid suggests a diagnosis of:
1. Tuberculosis
2. Malignancy
3. Rheumatoid arthritis
4. Pulmonary infarction
Ans: 2
Which of the following conditions is associated with Coomb's hemolytic anaemia:
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1. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura.
2. Progressive systemic sclerosis.
3. Systemic lupus erythematosus.
4. Polvarteritis nodosa.

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Ans: 3
Which of the following marker in the blood is the most reliable indicator of recent hepatitis B- infection?
1. HBsAg
2. IgG anti-HBs
3. IgM anti - H?
4. IgM anti - Hbe
Ans: 3
The severity of mitral stenosis is clinically best decided by:
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1. Length of diastolic murmur.
2. Intensity of diastolic murmur.
3. Loudness of first heart sound.
4. Split of second heart sound.
Ans: 1
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The risk of developing infective endocarditis is the least in a patient with:
1. Small ventricular septal defect
2. Severe aortic regurgitation.
3. Severe mitral regurgitation
4. Large atrial septal defect
Ans: 4
The severity of mitral regurgitation is decided by all of the following clinical findings except:
1. Presence of mid-diastolic murmur across mitral valve.
2. Wide split of second heart sound.
3. Presence of left ventricular S3 gallop.
4. Intensity of systolic murmur across mitral valve.
Ans: 1

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Congenital long QT syndrome can lead to:
1. Complete heart block
2. Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia.
3. Acute myocardial infarction.
4. Recurrent supra ventricular tachycardia.
Ans: 2
With reference to bacteroides fragilis all of the following statements are true except:
1. It is the most frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples.
2. It is not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole.
3. The lipopolysaccharide formed by B. fragills is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxin.
4. Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in bacteremia due to B.
Ans: 4
All of following statements are true regarding Q fever except:
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1. It is a zoonotic infection.
2. Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia
3. No rash is seen
4. Weil Felix reaction is very useful for diagnosis.

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Ans: A
The following ststements are true regarding botulism except:
1. Infant botulism is caused by ingestion of preformed toxin.
2. Clostridium botulinum A,B,C and F cause human disease.
3. The gene for botulinum toxin is encoded by a bacteriophage.
4. Clostridium boriatti may cause botulism.
Ans: 1
Streptococcal Toxix shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor.
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1. M protein
2. Pyrogenic exotoxin
3. Streptolysin O.
4. Carbohydrate cell wall.
Ans: 2
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A 24 year old male presents to a STD clinic with a single painless ulcer on external genitalia. The choice of laboratory test to look for the etilogical agent would be:
1. Scrappings from ulcer for culture on chocolate agar with antibiotic supplement.
2. Serology for detection of specific IgM antibodies.
3. Scrappings from ulcer for dark field microscopy.
4. Scrappings from ulcer for tissue culture.
Ans: 3
There has been an outbreak of food borne salmonella gastroenteritis in the community and the stool samples have been received in the laboratory. Which is the enrichment medium of choice:
1. Cary Blair medium
2. V R medium
3. Selenite "F" medium
4. Thioglycollate medium
Ans: 3

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A 20 year old male had pain abdomen and mild fever followed by gastroenteritis. The stool examination showed presence of pus cells and RBCs on microscopy. The etiological agent responsible is most likely to be:
1. Enteroinvasive E. coli.
2. Enterotoxigenic E. coli.
3. Enteropathiogenic E. coli.
4. Enetroaggregative E. coli.
Ans: 1
A man presents with fever and chills 2 weeks after a louse bite. There was a maculo-popular rash on the trunk which spread peripherally. The cause of this infection can be:
1. Scurb typhus.
2. Endemic typhus.
3. Rickettsial pox.
4. Epidemic typhus.
Ans: 2
The virulence factor of Nesseria gonorrhoeae includes all of the following except:
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Outer membrane proteins
1. IgA Protease
2. M-proteins
3. Pilli
Ans: 3
A patient in an ICU is on a CVP line. His blood culture shows growth of grain positive cocci which are catalase positive and coagulase negative. Themost likely etiological agent is:
1. Staplylococcus aureus
2. Staplylococcus epidermidis
3. Staplylococcus pyogenes
4. Enterococcus faecalis.
Ans: 2
According to WHO criteria, the minimum normal sperm cauntis:
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1. 10 million/ml
2. 20 million/ml
3. 40 million/ml
4. 60 million/ml
Ans: 2
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In triple screening test for Down's syndrome during pregnancy all of the following are included except:
1. Serum beta Hcg
2. Serum oestriol
3. Maternal serum Alfa fetoprotein
4. Acetyl cholinesterase
Ans: 4
An optic nerve injury may result in all of the following except:
1. Loss of vision in that eye.
2. Dilatation of pupil.
3. Ptosis
4. Loss of light reflex.
Ans: 3

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The commonest cause of occipito-posterior position of fetal head during labour is:
1. Maternal obesity
2. Deflexion of fetal head
3. Multiparity
4. Android pelvis.
Ans: 2
The commonest cause of breech presentation is
1. Prematurity
2. Hydrocephalus
3. Placenta previa
4. Polyhydramnios
Ans: 1
The commonest congenital anomaly seen in pregnancy with diabetes mellitus is
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Multicystic kidneys
1. Oesophageal atresia
2. Neural tube defect
3. Enalapril
Ans: 3
Use of which of the following drug is contra-indicated in pregnancy.
1. Digoxin
2. Nigedipine
3. Amoxycillin
4. Ealapril
Ans: 4
Following renal disorder is associated with worst pregnancy outcome.
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1. Systemic lupus erythematosus
2. IgA nephropathy
3. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
4. Scleroderma
Ans: 1
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A perimanopausal lady with well differentiated adenocarcinoma of uterus has more than half myometrial invasion, vaginal metastasis and inguinal lymph node metastasis. She is staged as:
1. Stage III B
2. Stage III C
3. Stage IV a
4. Stage IV b
Ans: 4
The following combination of agents are the most preferred for short day care surgerias
1. Propofol, fetanyl, isoflurane
2. Thiopentone sodium, morphine, halothane
3. Ketamine, pethidine, halothane
4. Propofol, morphine, halothane
Ans: 1

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All of the following drugs have been used for medical abortion, except:
1. Mifepristone.
2. Misoprostol
3. Methotrexate
4. Atosiban
Ans: 4
A 21 year old primigravida is admitted at 39 weeks gestation with painless antepartum haemorrhage. On examination uterus is soft, non tender and head engaged. The management for her would be:
1. Blood transfusion and sedatives.
2. A speculum examination
3. Pelvic examination in OT
4. Tocolysis and sedatives.
Ans: 3
Which statement is true regarding VENTOUSE (Vacuum Extractor)
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1. Minor scalp abrasions and subgaleal heamatomas to new born are moe frequent than forceps.
2. Can be applied when foetal head is above the level of ischial spine.
3. Maternal trauma is more frequent than forceps.
4. Can not be used when fetal head is not fully rotated.
Ans: 2
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A drop in fetal heart rate that typically lasts less than 2 minutes and is usually associated with umbilical cord compresion is called.
1. Early declaration
2. Late declaration
3. Variable declaration
4. Prolonged declaration
Ans: 3
All the following are known side effects with the use of tocolytic therapy except.
1. Tachycardia
2. Hypotension
3. Hyperglycemia
4. Fever
Ans: 2

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All of the following factors decrease the minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC) of an inhalation anaesthetic agent except.
1. Hypothermia
2. Hyponatremia
3. Hypocalcaemia
4. Anemia
Ans: 3
The narrowest part of larynx in infants is at the cricoid level. In administering anesthesia this may lead to all except:
1. Choosing a smaller size endotracheal tube.
2. Trauma t the subglottic region.
3. Post operative stridor
4. Laryngeal oedema
Ans: ?
The administration of succinylocholine to a paraplegic pateint led to the appearance of dysarrhythmias, conduction abnormalities and finally cardiac arrest. The most likely cause is:
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1. Hypercalcemia
2. Hyperkalemia
3. Anaphylaxis
4. Hyermagnesemia
Ans: 1
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Following spinal subarachnoid block patient a develop hypotension. This can be managed by the following means exept:
1. Lowering the head end
2. Administration of 100 ml of Ringers lacate before the block

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Vascopressure drug like methoxamine
1. Us of ionotrope like dopamine.
Ans: 4
In the immediate post operative period the common cause of respiratory insufficiency could be because of the following, except:
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1. Residual effect of muscle relaxant
2. Overdose of narcotic analgesic
3. Mild Hypovalemia
4. Mycocardial infarction
Ans: 4
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On mutation, which of the following may give rise to hereditary glaucoma.
1. Optineurin
2. Ephrins
3. RBA8
4. Huntingtin
Ans: 1
Brain lipid binding protein is expressed by which of the following:
1. Mature astrocytes.
2. Oligodendrocytes.
3. Purkinje cells
4. Pyramidal neurons
Ans: 2?

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All of the following ligaments contribute to the stability of ankle (talocrural) joint except.
1. Calcaneonavicular (spring)
2. Deltoid
3. Lateral
4. Posterior tibiofibular
Ans: 1 (associated with arch integrity)
In angina pectoris, the pain radiating down the left arm )sensory) fibres contained in the :-
1. Carotid branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve
2. Phrenic nerve
3. Vagus nerve and recurrent laryngeal nerve.
4. Thoracic splanchnic nerve
Ans: 4
All the following sings could result from infection within the right cavernous sinus except.
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1. Constricted pupil in response to light
2. Engorgement of the retinal veins upon ophthalmoscopic examination.
3. Ptosis of the right eyelid.
4. Right opthalmoplegia.
Ans: 1
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In dislocation of the jaw, displacement of the articular disc beyond the articular tubercle of the temporomandibular joint results from spasm or excessive contraction of the following muscle?
1. Buccinator
Lateral pterygoid
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1. Masseter
2. Temporalis
Ans: 2
Following surgical removal of a firm nodular cancer swelling in the right breast and exploration of the right axilla, on examination the patient was found to have a winged right scapula. Most likely this could have occurred due to injury to the:
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1. Subscapular muscle
2. Coracoid process of scapula
3. Long thoracic nerve
4. Circumflex scapular artery
Ans: 3
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A 50 year old man suffering from carcinoma of prostate showed areas of sclerosis and collapse of T10 and T11 vertebrae in X-ray. The spread of this cancer to the above vertebrae was most probably through:
1. Sacral canel
2. Lymphatic vessels
3. Internal vertebral plexus of venis
4. Superiorectal veins
Ans: 3
Father to son inheritance is never seen in case of:
1. Autosomal dominant inheritance
2. Autosomal recessive inheritance
3. X-linked recessive inheritance
4. Multifactorial inheritance
Ans: 3

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A 3-year old boy is detected to have bilateral renal calculi. Metabolic evaluation confirms the presence of marked hypercalciuria with normal blood levels of calcium,magnesium, phosphate, uric acid and creatinine. A diagnosis of idiopathic hypercalciuria is made. The dietary management includes all, except
1. Increased water intake
2. Low sodium diet
3. Reduced calcium intake
4. Avoid meat proteins.
Ans: 3
The hormone associated with cold adaption:
1. Growth hormone.
2. Thyroxine.
3. Insulin.
4. Melanocyle Stimulating Hormone.
Ans: 2
All of the following are characteristic features of Kwashiorkor, except:
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1. High blood osmolarity.
2. Hypoalbuminemia.
Edema.
1. Fatty liver.
Ans: 1
Actyl Co-A acts as a substrate for all the enzymes except:
1. HMG-Co-A synthetase.
2. Malic enzyme.
3. Malonyl Co-A synthetase.
4. Fatty acid synthetase.
Ans: 2
The activity of the following enzyme is affected by biotin deficiency:
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1. Transketolase,
2. Dehydrogenase.
3. Oxidase.
4. Carboxylase.
Ans: 4
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A 55-year-old male accident victim in casualty urgently needs blood. The blood bank is unable to determine his ABO group, as his red cell group and plasma group do not match. Emergency transfusion of patient should be with:
1. RBC corresponding to his red cell group and colloids/crystalloid.
2. Whole blood corresponding to his plasma group.
3. O positive RBC and colloids/crystalloid.
4. AB negative whole blood.
Ans: 3
Although more than 400 blood groups have been identified, the ABO blood group system remains the most important in clinical medicine because:
1. It was the blood group system to be discovered.
2. It has four different blood groups A, B, AB, O(H).
3. ABO (H) antigens are present in most body tissues and fluids.
4. ABO (H) antibodies are invariably present in plasma when persons RBC lacks the corresponding antigen.
Ans: 4

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Km of an enzyme is:
1. Dissociation constant.
2. The normal physiological substrate concentration.
3. The substrate concentration at half maximum velocity.
4. Numerically indentical for all isozymes that catalyze a given reaction.
Ans: 1
At the physiological PH the DNA molecules are:
1. Positively charged.
2. Negatively charged.
3. Neutral.
4. Amphipathic.
An: 2
Cholesterol present in LDL:
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Represents primarily cholesterol that is being removed from peripheral cells.
1. Binds to a receptor and diffuses across the cell membrance.
2. On acuumulation in the cell inhibits replenishment of LDL receptors.
3. When enters a cell, suppresses activity of acyl-CoA: cholesterol acytranferase ACAT.
Ans: 3
A newborn infant refuses breast milk since the 2^nd day of birth, vomits on force-feeding but accepts glucose-water, develops diarrhea on the third day, by 5^th day she is jaundiced with liver enlargement and eyes show signs of cataract. Urinary reducing sugar was positive but blood glucose estimated by glucose oxidation method was found low. The most likely cause is deficiency of:
1. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase.
2. Beta galactosidase.
3. Glucose-6-phosphatase.
4. Galactokinase.
Ans: 4
An obese lady aged 45 years, was brought to emergency in a semi comatose condition. The laboratory investigations showed K+ (5.8mmol/L); Na+ (136mmol/L); blood PH (7.1), H? (12mmol/L); ketone bodies (350 mg/dl). The expected level of blood glucose for this lady is:
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1. < 45 mg/dl.
2. < 120 mg/dl.
3. > 180 mg/dl.
4. < 75 mg/dl.
Ans: 2?/3?
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Replication and transcription are similar processes in mechanistic terms because both:
1. Use RNA primers for initiation.
2. Use decoxybonucleotides as precursors.
3. Are semi conserved events
4. phosphodiester bond formation with elongation occurring in the 5' – 3' direction.
Ans: 2
Commonest cause of neonatal mortality in India is:
1. Diarrheal diseases.
2. Birth injuries.
3. Lowbirth weight
4. Congenital anomalies.
Ans: 3

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All of the following features are suggestive of asbestosis except:
1. Occurs within five years of exposure.
2. The disease progresses even after removal of contact.
3. Can lead to pleural mesothelioma.
4. Sputum contains asbestos bodies.
Ans: 1
In calculating Dependency Ratio, the numerator is expressed as:
1. Population under 10 years and 60 and above.
2. Population under 15 years and 60 and above.
3. Population under 10
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This post was last modified on 30 July 2021