Download AIIMS PG 2012 Question paper with Answers (All India Institute of Medical Sciences Postgraduate)
AIIMS PG MAY 2012
(Based on Memory)
1. 50 year old female has undergone mastectomy for Ca Breast. After Mastectomy, Patient is
not able toextend, adduct and internally rotate the arm. There is damage to nerve supplying
which muscle?
A. Latissimus Dorsi
B. Pectoralis Major
C. Teres Minor
D. Long head of Triceps
Ans: A
2. Muscle spared by complete transection of cranial part of accessory nerve
A. Stylopharyngeus
B. Palatopharyngeus
C. Salpingiopharyngeus
D. Cricopharyngeus
Ans: A
3. Cervical vertebra is differentiated from the Thoracic vertebra by the presence of
A. Foramen Transversarium
B. Triangular Foramina
C. Upward facing facets
D. Larger Vertebral Body
Ans: A
4. In complete unilateral damage to Hypoglossal nerve, all are true EXCEPT
A. Atrophy on affected side
B. Deviation of tongue towards the site of lesion
C. Deviation ofLarynx to the contralateral side during swallowing
D. Loss of tactile sensation on tongue on affected side
Ans: D
5. Which of the following is True?
A. Hypothalamus is part of brainstem
B. Occipital lobe is part of Cerebral Cortex
C. Medulla ia part of Limbic System
D. All of the above
Ans: B
PHYSIOLOGY
6. CSF pressure is mainly regulated by
A. Rate of CSF formation
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B. Rate of CSF Absorption
C. Cerebral Blood Flow
D. Venous Pressure
Ans: B
7. On exposure to cold, a neonate shows all of the following mechanism EXCEPT
A. Shivering
B. Crying and flexion of body like fetus position
C. Cutaneous Vasoconstriction
D. Increased production of Noradrenaline for breakdown of brown fat in adipose tissue
Ans: A
8. Without external cues, the sleep-wake cycle in humans
A. Does not continue
B. Continue with cycle length of 24 hours
C. Continue with cycle length of less than 24 hours
D. Continue with cycle length of more than 24 hours
Ans: D
9. All of the following are true for ADH, EXCEPT
A. Post-operative increase in secretion
B. Neurosecretion
C. Increased secretion when plasma osmolality is low
D. Act on distal tubule and increase permeability
Ans: C
10. Critical Closing volume is
A. Volume at the end of forceful expiration
B. Volume at the end of forceful inspiration
C. Volume remaining after Functional Residual Capacity is measured
D. Close to Residual Volume
Ans: D
11. During moderate exercise, blood flow to brain
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. No Effect
D. First increases then decreases
Ans: C
12. Corticospinal injury is associated with all EXCEPT
A. Babinski sign present
B. Loss of fine movements in fingers and hand
C. Superficial abdominal reflex absent
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D. Clasp knife rigidity
Ans: C
13. Ventricular Depolarization stars from
A. Posterobasal part of ventricle
B. Basal part of ventricle
C. Uppermost part of Interventricular septum
D. Left part of Interventricular septum
Ans: D
14. Left lobe is responsible for
A. Appreciation of Music
B. Spatial orientation
BIOCHEMISTRY
15. Fluorescence means
A. Spontaneous illumination in dark
B. Release of longer wavelength light on absorbing light of short wavelength
C. Release of shorter wavelength light on absorbing light of longer wavelength
D. Release of equal wavelength light at constant rate
Ans: B
16. Gluconeogenesis in Fasting state is indicated by
A. Citrate activation by acetyl co-a carboxylase
B. Pyruvate carboxylase activation by acetyl co-A
C. Fructose 1, 6 bisphosphate activation by Pyruvate Kinase
D. Fructose 2, 6 bisphosphate activation by PFK - 1
Ans: C
17. DNA estimation can be done by
A. Spirometer
B. Spectrophotometer
C. pH meter
D. Sphygmometer
Ans: B
18. Food with maximum Cholesterol content
A. Egg
B. Coconut Oil
C. Hydrogenated Fats
D. Ghee (Hydrogenated)
Ans: A
19. If more than one codon codes for same amino acid, this phenomenon is known as--
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A. Degenerac
B. Frame-Shift Mutation
C. Transcription
D. Mutation
Ans: A
FORENSIC MEDICINE
20. Last organ to be dissected during autopsy in asphyxia death (May 2008)
A. Neck
B. Head
C. Abdomen
D. Thorax
21. Active partner in lesbianism is called as
A. Femme
B. Bugger
C. Catamite
D. Dyke
Ans: D
22. A person was found dead with bluish green frothy discharge at the angle of mouth and
nostrils. What is thediagnosis?
A. Arsenic poisoning
B. Copper poisoning
C. Mercury poisoning
D. Lead poisoning
Ans: B
23. Heat stiffening in muscles occurs above temperature
A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60
Ans: D
24. A man was found with suicidal shot on right temple. The gun was in his right hand. The skull
was in his right hand. The skull was burst open. There was charring and cherry red coloration in
the track inside. What can be said about shot?
A. Contact Shot
B. Close shot
C. Shot within range of smoking
D. Shot within range of tattooing
Ans: A
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25. Which of the following anti-estrogen drug is used in estrogen receptor positive breast
cancer?
A. Tamoxifen
B. Clomiphene Citrate
C. Estrogen
D. Adriamycin
Ans: A
26. A woman consumes several tabs of Amytryptalline. All of the following can be done except?
A. Sodium Phenobarbitone infusion for alkalization of urine
B. Gastric Lavage
C. Diazepam for seizure control
D. Atropine as antidote
Ans: D
27. According to recent Supreme Court Judgment, Doctor can be charged for Medical
Negligence under 304-A, only if
A. If he is from corporate hospital
B. If negligence is from inadvertent error
C. Res Ipsa Loquitor
D. Gross Negligence
Ans: D
28. Aperson breaks someone's mandible in alleged fight. Police can
A. Arrest with warrant
B. Arrest without warrant
C. Declare him hostile and put him in jail
D. Put him in mental asylum
29. Choking is seen in
A. Revolver
B. Pistol
C. Shotgun
D. Rifle
Ans: C
30. In Breslau's second life test, organ tested is
A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Lung
D. Stomach and Intestine
Ans: D
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31. A patient comes with Pinpoint pupil, salivation, tremors and red tears. Cholinesterase level
was 30% of Norma. Probable Diagnosis is (?)
A. OP Poisoning
B. Dhatura
Ans: A
32. A case of murder with gunshot is reported. A metal bullet is recovered from the body.
Primary and Secondary markings on a metal bullet can be used for
A. Identification of weapon
B. To know the range of fring
C. Severity of tissue damage
Ans: A
PATHOLOGY
33. Edema in Nephrotic Syndrome is due to
A. Na + and Water retention
B. Increased venous pressure
C. Protein Loss
D. Hyperlipidemia
Ans: C
34. Fixative used in Histopathology
A. Ethyl Alcohol
B. Buffered Neutral 10% Formalin
C. Glutaraldehyde
D. Bouin's Solution
Ans: B
35. In Barrett's Esophagus
A. Intestinal Metaplasia
B. Intestinal Dysplasia
C. Gastric Dysplasia
D. Squamous Metaplasia
Ans: A
36. About Bombay Blood Group, all are true EXCEPTA
A. Lack of A, B and H antigen on RBCB. Lack of A, B and H antigen in Saliva
C. Lack of other Blood Group Antigens
D. Presence of Anti-A, Anti-B and Anti-H antibody in blood
Ans: C
37. Most common mechanism of GERD
A. Transient decrease in pressure at lower esophagus
B. Hypotension at lower esophageal sphincter
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C. Hiatus Hernia
Ans: A
38. Bradykinin in acute inflammation causes
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Pain at the sign of inflammation
C. Bronchodilatation
D. Decreased vascular permeability
Ans: B
A.B.C.D.
Mitochondrial Inheritance Autosonal DominantX-linked Recessive Autosomal Recessive
Ans: A
40. Which of the following suggest Irreversible Cell Injury?
A. Mitochondrial Swelling
B. Amorphous Density in Mitochondria
C. Ribosomal Disaggregation
D. Chromosomal
Ans: B
41. In Lewis Triple Response, redness when skin is scratched with a pointed object is seen due
to
A. Axon Reflex causing Vasoconstriction
B. Histamine Release due to local injury to mast cells by pointing device
C. Free Nerve Endings
D. Endothelial Damage leading to increase in permeability
Ans: A
PHARMACOLOGY
42. Drug causing acquired Nasolacrimal duct obstruction
A. Timolol
B. Pilocarpine
C. Dorzolamide
D. Brimonidine
43. Antibiotic associated with Colitis
A. Neomycin
B. Chloramphenicol
C.Clindamycin
D. Vancomycin
Ans: C
39. Inheritance is
44. Drugs banned by International Olympics Committee are all EXCEPT
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A.B.C.D.
SalbutamolSodium Cromoglycate Spironolactone Erythropoie
Ans: B
45. What is true about First Order Kinetics?
A. Constant amount of drug is eliminated
B. Rate of elimination is constant
C. Free drug concentration increased after successive doses
D. Rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration of the drug
46. Despite having short half-life, PPI acts longer because
A. Causes irreversible inhibition of proton pump. Acid secretion suppressed till new pumps are
generated
B. Get trapped in canaliculi
C. Enteric coated tablets causing slow release
D. Prodrugs and needs generation of active metabolites
Ans: A
47. False about Antiepileptics is
A. Phenytoin and Carbamazepine act by prolongation of inactivated state of Na+Channels
B. Diazepam is anti-epileptic
C. Carbamazepine used for Trigeminal Neuralgia
D. Lamotrigine acts by opening og GABA mediated CI-channels
Ans: D
MICROBIOLOGY
48. In a 5 year old boy who has history of pyogenic infections by bacteria with polysaccharide-
rich capsules, which of the following investigations should be done?
A. IgA deficiency
B. IgGI deficiency
C. IgG2 deficiency
D. IgA and IgG2 deficiency
49. Sputum can be disinfected by all EXCEPT
A. Autoclaving
B. Boiling
C. Cresol
D. Chlorhexidine
Ans: D
50. Which of the following factor is responsible for deciding whether an immunoglobin will
remain membranebound or get secreted
A. RNA Splicing
B. Class switching
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C. Differential RNA Processing
D. Allelic Exclusion
Ans: C
51. A patient presents with signs of pneumonia. The bacterium obtained from sputum was a
gram positive cocci which showed alpha hemolysis on sheep agar. Which of the following test
will hellp to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Optochin sensitivity
B. Bacterium sensitivity
C. Coagulase test
D. cAMP test
Ans: A
52. With reference to antibiotic resistance, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT
A. Most common mechanism is production of neutralizing substances
B. Plasmid mediated antibiotic resistance is always transmitted vertically
C. Complete elimination of the target is the mechanism of resistance to Vancomycin in some the
strains of enterococcus
D. Alteration of target is the mechanism of resistance in some of the Pneumococcal strains
Ans: B
53. A patient has Bilirubin = 0.9 mg/dl, elevated SGPT & SGOT HBaAg positive, Anti HBC Ig M
negative, Anti Hepatitis E Ig M positive. Patient has
A. Chronic Hepatitis B infection with Hepatitis E super infection
B. Hepatitis E infection
C. Co- infection with Hepatitis B & Hepatitis E
D. Infection with mutant Hepatitis B virus
Ans: A
54. A young male patient presented with urethral discharge. On urine examination pus cells
were found but noorganisms. Which method would be best for cultures?
A. McCoy Cell Line
B. Thayer Martin Medium
C. L.J. Medium
D. Levinthal Medium
Ans: A
55. A person working in abattoir with pustules on hand which turned into ulcer. Which of the
following would help best in diagnosis?
A. Polychrome Methvlene Blue
B. Carbol fuschin
C. Acid Fast Stain
D. Calcoflour white
Ans: A
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PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE
56. In certain population, there were 4050 births in last one year. There were 50 still births. 50
infants died within 7 days where as 150 died within first 28 days. What is Neonatal Mortality
Rate?
A. 50
B. 62.5
C. 12.5
D. 49.5
Ans: A
57. Leprosy is not yet eradicated because
A. No effective vaccine
B. Highly Infectious but low pathogenicity
C. Only humans are reservoir
D. Long incubation period
Ans: D
58. A person found some correlation between fatty food intake and diseases due to obesity. He
did this bycollecting data from food manufacturers and hospitals respectively, such a study is
A. Ecological
B. Cross sectional
C. Psephlogical study
D. Experimental study
Ans: A
59. Bias can be eliminated by all EXCEPT
A. Matching
B. Blinding
C. Randomization
D. Multivariate Analysis
Ans: D
60. A study revealed lesser incidence of carcinoma colon in pure vegtarians than non-
vegetarians; by which it was concluded that Beta-carotene is protective against cancer. This
may not be true because the vegetarian subjects may be consuming high fiber diet which is
protective against cancer. This is an example of
A. Multifactorial Causation
B. Causal Association
C. Confounding factor
D. COMMON association
Ans: C
61. According to The Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923, which of the following is considered
an occupational disease?
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A. Typhoid
B. Anthrax
C. Tetanus
D. Dengue
Ans: B
62. True about Indian Reference Male is
A. Age 20-39 years
B. Weight 65 kg
C. Work is mainly dentary
D. Works for 10 hours
Ans: C
63. Application of Incubation period is all EXCEPT
A. To differentiate co-primary cases from secondary cases
B. To find out time for isolation
C. To find out time for Quarantine
D. To prevent infection to the contacts of the infected person
Ans: B
64. Common to both Acute and ChMalnutrition is
A. Weight for Age
B. Height for Age
C. Weight for Height
D. BMI
Ans: A
65. True about Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojna
A. Insurance company runs the scheme
B. Government run Insurance scheme for employees
C. Government run Insurance scheme for poor's
Ans: C
66. Natural Disaster causing maximum deaths
A. Hydrological
B. Geological
C. Meteorological
D. Climatological
Ans: A
67. In 13-15 year female child, Recommended Daily Protein Intake is
A. 0.68
B. 0.95
C. 1
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D. 1.33
Ans: D
68. In Acute Flaccid Paralysis Surveillance, Re-Evaluation of post-polio residual Paralysis is
done at
A. 60 days
B. 90 days
C. 6 weeks
D. 6 months
Ans: A
69. Which of the following is best suited for the role of social worker?
A. Health professional involved in physiotherapy
B. Health professional involved in coping strategies, interpersonal skills, adjustment with family
C. A person involved in finding jobs and economic support for disabled
D. Health professional
Ans: B
70. A sexually active, long distance truck driver's wife comes with vaginal discharge. Under
Syndromic Approach, which drug should be given
A. Metronidazole, Azithromycin, Fluconazole
B. Metronidazole
C. Azithromycin
D. Metronidazole and Fluconazole
Ans: A
71. All of the following are helpful for elimination of Filariasis, EXCEPT
A. Microfilarias do not multiply in vectors
B. They multiply in humans
C. Larvae are deposited on skin surface where they can't survive
72. In WHO "Road to Health" chart, upper and lower limit of represents
A. 30 percentile for boys and 3 percentile for girls
B. 50 percentile for boys and 3 percentile for girls
C. 30 percentile for boys and 5 percentile for girls
D. 50 percentile for boys and 5 percentile for girls
Ans: B
OPHTHALMOLOGY
73. On Fundoscopic Examination a patient, a red dot is seen. He has a history of being hit by a
tennis ball. What is the probable cause?
A. Berlin's Edema
B. Macular Tear
C. Macular Hole
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D. Macular Bleed
74. In Vision 2020, the target for Secondary Service Center is for how much population?
A. 10000
B. 50000
C. 1 lac
D. 5 lac
75. In Vision 2020,Ophthalmologist per population ratio is
A. 5000
B. 10000
C. 50000
D. 1 lac
Ans: C
76. Occular Dendritic Cells have
A. HLA 1
B. HLA 2
C. Both
D. None
Ans: C
77. Corneal Dystrophies are usually
A. Primary Bilateral
B. Primary Unilateral
C. Primary Bilateral with Systemic Disease
D. Primary Unilateral Systemic Disease
Ans: A
78. Weakness of both Adduction and Abduction is seen in
A. Duane's Retraction Syndrome Type 1
B. Duane's Retraction Syndrome Type 2
C. Duane's Retraction Syndrome Type 3
Ans: C
79. A patient presented with unilateral proptosis, which was compressible and increases on
bending forward. Northrill or bruit was present. MRI shows a retroorbital mass with
enhancement. The likely diagnosis is
A. A V Malformation
B. Orbital Encephalocele
C. Orbital Varix
D. Neurofibromatosis
Ans: C
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80. In patient with anterior uveitis, decrease in vision due to posterior segment involvement can
occur because of
A. Visual Floaters
B. Inflammatory Disc Edema
C. Exudative Retinal Detachment
D. CME
Ans: D
81. Area of retina seen under Direct Ophthalmoscope
A. 1 DD
B. 2 DD
C. 3DD
D. 4DD
Ans: b
82. A 40 year male with diabetes presents with vitreous hemorrhage. What is the cause?
A. Neovascularization at disc
B. Posterior Retinal Detachment
C. Central Retinal vein Occlusion
D. Trauma to Central Retinal Artery
Ans: A
83. Gyrate Atrophy patient with defective Ornithine Transcarbamoylase will be benefited by
A. Ornithine free diet
B. Arginine free diet
C. Pyridoxine and Vit B12
D. Vitamin B1, B6 and B12
Ans: A
84. Iritis, Vitritis. Unilateral white patches on retina
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. CMV
D. ENT
85. In Electrocochleography
A. Probe, stimulation
B. Summation of microphonics
C. AP of cochlear nerve
D. Outer hair cells
86. Vestibular Evoked Myogenic Potential detects
A. Cochlear Nerve
B. Superior Vestibular Nerve
C. Inferior Vestibular Nerve
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D. Inflammatory Myopathy
87. Second Primary Tumor of Head & Neck most commonly suspected in malignancy of
A. Oral cavity
B. Larynx
C. Hypopharynx
D. Paranasal sinuses
Ans: A
88. Initial screening test for newborn hearing disorder Hearing test used in newborn
A. ABR ? Auditory Brainstem Response
B. Autoacoustic Emissions
C. Free Field Audiometry
D. AABR
MEDICINE
89. All of the following are true for Hepatitis B EXCEPT?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Vertical transmission more important than horizontal Age of onset determines prognosis Period
of Communicability lasts several months Virus can be found in blood 1 month before jaundice
Ans: A
90. The acid base status of a patient reveals a pH=7.45 and and pCO2=30 mmHg. The patient
has partially compensated.
A. Metabolic Acid
B. Metabolic Alkalosis
C. Respiratory Alkalosis
D. Respiratory Acidosis
Ans: C
91. In Alternative Medicine, which of the following can be used for Heart Failure?
A. Gingko Biloba
B. Neem tree extract
C. Terminalia Arjuna
D. St. John's wort
Ans: C
92. SLE, Anti TGFC antibody given. What can be seen in dermoepidermal junction?
A. Anti-Nuclear antibody
B. Immune-complex deposition
C. Anti-Collagen antibody
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D. Anti-Epithelial Cell antibody
Ans: B
93. Post-transplantation lymphoma is due to
A. CMVB
2. EBVC
3. HPV
Ans: B
94. Most common type Spinocerebral Ataxia in India is
A. SCA 1
B. SCA 2
C. SCA 3
D. SCA 4
Ans: B
95. In Posterier Intercommunicating Artery Aneurysm, which structure has most chances to be
compressed
A. Occulomotor Nerve
B. Trochlear Nerve
C. Hypophysis
D. Cerebellum
Ans: A
96. In Tension Pneumothorax
A. Chest wall expansion
B. Negative intraleural pressure
C. Decreased surfactant
D. Increased compliance of lung
Ans: A
97. Intracorpuscular Defect of Erythrocyte
A. Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia
B. Hereditary Spherocytosis
C. Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia
Ans: B
98. A 23 year old female presenting with anemia, jaundice for 2 years. Peripheral smears
showing spherocytes. The best investigation to be done is
A. Osmotic Fragility Test
B. Coomb's Test
C. Reticulocyte Count
D. Bone Marrow Aspiration
Ans: B
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99. Not a side-effect of Growth Hormone Therapy?
A. Gynecomastia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Pseudotumor of Brain
D. Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis
Ans: B
100. A male come with anemia, weakness and constipation since 2 years. He has abdominal
pain. Mostprobable diagnosis?
A. Lead toxicity
Ans: A
101. A patient with Hypertension, comes with severe unilateral headache and vomiting. On MRI,
lateralized convex lesion seen. He has neck stiffness. The diagnosis is
A. Intracerebral Hemorrhage
B. Subarachnoid Hemorrhage
C. Meningitis
Ans: B
102. Drug induced Lupus seen in all EXCEPT
A. Sulfonamides
B. Hydralazine
C. Isoniazid
D. Penicillin
Ans: D
103. All about Leukemia are FALSE EXCEPT
A. CML occurs after 50 years of age
B. All occurs before 1 year in neonates
C. All in before 1 year has poor prognosis
D. Hairy Cell Leukemia occurs before 50 years of age
Ans: A
104. Patient with Pneumococcal Brain Abscess. Culture is sent for Antibiotic sensitivity. Which
empiricalantibiotic is given till culture sensitivity result come?
A. Penicillin G
B. Ceftriaxone + Metronidazole
Ans: B
105. Psedotumor Cerebri is seen in A.B.C.D. Obese Female of 20-40 years
B.Obese male of 20-40 years
C. Thin Female of 50-60 years
D. Thin male of 50-60 years
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Ans: A
106. Photosensitivity is a symptom of Porphyria. All of the following enzyme deficiencies have
photosensitivity EXCEPT
A. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
B. Uroporphyrinogen oxidase
C. Coproporphyrinogen oxidase
D. Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
Ans: C
107. A 60 year old has progressive slowing of movements since 2 years. She has Gigidity and
rectangular slow wave jerking movements. Most probable diagnosis is
A. Superanuclear Palsy
B. Lewy-Body Dementia
C. Parkinsonism
D. Multiple System Atrophy
Ans: A
108. A Penicillin allergic patient has Rheumatic Fever. Which of the following grug should be
prescribed?
A. A Penicillin G
B. Sulfoxazole
C. Sulfasalazine
D. Streptomycin
109. A neonate present with bleeding from umbilical stump, rest of the examination is normal.
Probable diagnosis is
A. Factor X deficiency
B. von Willebrand Disease
C. Glanzman Thromboasthenia
D. Bernard Soulier Syndrome
Ans: A
110. Which scientific principle is the basis for T
hermodilution method used in measurment
of cardiac output by Pulmonary Catheter?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hagen-Poisseuille Principle Stewart-Hamilton Principle Bernoulli's Principle Universal Gas
Equation
Ans: B
111. Most common of Immuno proliferative small intestinal disease
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A. Malabsorption
B. Obstruction
C. Bleeding
D. Abdominal Pain
Ans: D
112. "Fever Blister" is due to
A. Primary HSV-1 Infection
B. Vericella Zoaster
C. Reactivation of HSV-1 Infection
D. CMV
Ans: C
113. An alcoholic with poor judgment and decreased in skilled movements. Blood alcohol level
would be
A. 30-80 mg/dl
B. 80-200 mg/dl
C. 200-300 mg/dl
D. > 300 MG/DL
Ans: B
114. A 56 year old man presents with unilateral headache, diplopia and fever. He had difficulty
in chewing. MRI of brain was normal and ESR was raised. Treatment is
A. Prednisolone
B. High Dose Aspirin
C. Coxibs
D. Valproate
Ans: A
115. Type of wave in Metabolic Encephalopathy
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Gamma
D. Delta
116. In 2 patients with Atherosclerosis, one is diabetic and other is non- diabetic. In relation to
non- diabetic, diabetic patient has 100 times increased risk of
A. MI
B. Cerebrovascular Stoke
C. Lower Limb Ischemia
D. Vertebrobasilar Insufficiency
Ans: C
117. In "Pneumonia Severity Scale", most important factor is
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A. Age
B. Congestive Heart Failure
C. Hypothermia
D. Hyponatremia
Ans: A
118. A boy is suffering from Acute Pyelonephritis. Most specific urinary finding
A. WBC Cast
B. Gram Staining for Bacteria
C. Leucocyte Esterase positive
D. Positive Nitrite Test
Ans: A
119. A lady had Meningioma with inflammatory edematous lesion. She was planned for surgery.
Juniorresident's mistake in writing pre-op notes is
A. Stop Steroids
B. Wash head with shampoo
C. Antibiotic Sensitivity
D. Antiepileptic
Ans: A
120. A lady had brethlessness, arthralgia and uveitis. Diagnosis is
A. Ocular Sarcoid
B. HLA B27 related Uveitis
C. Tuberculosis
Ans: A
121. A 46 year old man with constipation, abdominal pain, mucous in stool and sense of
incomplete evacuation since 4 years. On examination, there was left iliac fossa tenderness.
Diagnosis is
A. Ca Colon
B. Diverticular disease
Ans: C
122. Hematopoietic Stem Cells differ Committed Progenitor Cells in
A. Can reconstitute Bone Marrow
B. Secrete Growth Factor
C. Terminal Cells are different
D. Nuclear Receptor present
Ans: A
123. In an ablated animal, aresearcher injects Myeloid Stem Cells, after the incubation period
he finds which type of cells?
A. T-Lymphocyte
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B. Erythrocyte
C. Fibroblast
D. Hematopoietic Stem Cells
124. Due to decelerations, Aorta can be ruptured at places at places where it is fixed EXCEPT
A. At Aortic Valve
B. Behind Esophagus
C. Behind Crura of the Diaphragm
D. At Ligamentum Arteriosus
125. A lady with cold intolerance and hoarseness of voice was detected with cardiomegaly.
Investigation to bedone to know the cause is
A. Coronary Angiography
B. Left Ventricle Angiography
C. Right Ventricle Angiography
D. Echocardiography
Ans: D
126. Midsystolic Click is heard in a female. Pathology seen in mitral valve is (AI 10)
A. Myxomatous degeneration
B. Aschoff Nodules
C. Sub Acute Bacterial Endocarditis
D. Ruptured Chordae Tendinae
Ans: A
127. Most significant association for Hepatocellular Carcinoma
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. EBV
D. CMV
Ans: B
128. A patient comes with transmural thrombi. Streptokinase and Warfarin is started. After
which further testthrombolysis should be stopped
A. Pericardial Friction Rub
B. Pericardial Effusion
C. Mobitz Type 2 Block
D. Leg vein thrombosis
Ans: C
129. Thrombolytics can be given in treatment of AMI, if patient comes within
A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 18 hours
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D. 24 hours
Ans: B or C
130. A n old hypertensive man, on treatment with Aspirin, Sorbitrate, and Atenolol suddenly fell
in bathroom. Relatives noted black stools. He presented in ER with hypotension, tachycardia.
This diagnosis is (?)
A. Gastric Ulcer
B. Cerebrovascular Accident
Ans: A
131. All are true EXCEPT
A.
B.
C.
D.
Amyloid Angiopathy is associated with Small Vessel Disease Alzheimer's Disease is associated
with Amyloid Angiopathy Alzheimer's Disease is related to small vessel Disease Alzheimer's
Disease is not related to small vessel Disease
Ans: D
132. A patient with Atrial Fibrilation has clot in left Atrium. All of the following should be done in
management EXCEPT? (?)
A. DC Cardioversion with percutaneous Clot removal
B. Walfarin therapy
C. Open Commisurotomy and Clot removal
Ans: A
133. Malignant Hyperthermia, Metabolic Acidosis, Start treatment with
A. Iv Dantrolene
B. Na Bicarbonate
Ans: A
134. Most reliable test for diagnosing spinal TB is
A. MRI
B. CT guided Biopsy
C. PPD
Ans: B
135. All of the following can be seen in Massive Acute Blood Loss EXCEPT
A. Increase in Reticulocyte count
B. Increase in PCV
C.Increase in MCV
D. Increase in Neutophils
Ans: C
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136. Which of the following is incorrectly matched
A. Neurofibromatosis ? Renal Artery Stenosis
B. Moyamoya disease ? Aortic Aneurysm
C. Marfan's Syndrome ? Dural Ectasia
D. Muilbrey nanism ? Constricitve Pericarditis
Ans: B
SURGERY
137. Patient is tenderness in left iliac fossa. There was 3 cm stone in renel pelvis and no
Hydronephrosis. Mostappropriate management is
A. Percutaneous Nephrolithostomy
B. ESWL
C. Diuretics
D. Medical dissolution therapy with Potassium Citrate
Ans: A
138. A 40 year male presents with hematemesis. On examination his BP was 90/60 mmHg and
Heart Rate was 120/min. Splenomegaly was also present. The most probable cause of his
bleeding is
A. Portal Hypertension
B. Gastric ulcer
C. Duodenal ulcer
D. Drug-induced GI injury
Ans: A
139. After removal of the parotid gland, patient is having sweating on cheeks while eating.
Auriculotemporalnerve which contains parasympathetic secretomotor fibers to parotid gland is
fused with
A. Greater petrosal Nerve
B. Facial Nerve
C. Greater Auricular Nerve
D. Buccal Nerve
E. Glossopharynalgeal Nerve
Ans: None or B
th
140. A patient of Crohn's Disease, underwent resection anastomosis. Now presents on 7 post-
op day withanastomotic site leak from a fistula. Everyday leakage volume adds up to 150-200
ml. There is no intra-abdominal collection and the patient is stable without any complains. What
will be the next line of management?
A. Do conservative treatment and leave hi hope for the spontaneous resolution
B. Perform Laparotomy and check for leakage site and healthy margins
C. Perform Laparotomy and completely exteriorize the fistula
D. Perform Laparotomy and place lateral drains and leave
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Ans: A
141. A lady has dysphagia, intermittent epigastric pain. On endoscopy, Esophagus was dilated
above and narrow at the bottom. Treatment is
A. Heller's Cardiomyotomy
B. Esophagectomy
C. Dilatation
D. PPIs
Ans: A
142. Which jaw cyst is pre-malignant?
A. Radicular Cyst
B. Dental Cyst
C. Odontogenic kerato Cyst
D. Dentigerous Cyst
Ans: D
143. After doing a Thoracoabdominal graft, a person developed weakness in legs. It is due to
A. Lumbosacral nerve injury
B. Thoracic splanchnic nerve injury
C. Decreased blood supply to lower limbs
D. Discontinuation of Arteria Radicularis Magna
Ans: A or D
144. True about Epigastric Hernia is
A. Located below the umbilicus and always in the midline
B. Located above the umbilicus and always in the midline
C. Located above the midline and on either side
D. Can be seen anywhere on abdomen
Ans: B
145. External Hemorrhoids, distal to dentate line is
A. Painful
B. Skin Tag is same
D. Should be ligated
Ans: A
146. Early complication of lieostomy
A. Diarrhoea
B. Obstruction
C. Necrosis
D. Prolapse
Ans: A
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147. Ca Breast Stage 4b involves all EXCEPT
A. Nipple Retraction
B. Skin ulcer over the swelling
C. Dermal Edema
D. Satellite Nodule
Ans: A
148. Due to advances in cancer treatment the prognosis of which of the following has become
better?
A. Glioblastoma Multiforme
B. Esophageal Carcinoma
C. All in children
D. Cholangio Carcinoma
Ans: C
OBSTETRICS & GYNECOLOGY
149. After full term normal vaginal delivery, lady goes to sudden collapse. What should be
suspected?
A. PPH
B. Amniotic fluid embolism
C. Uterine Inversion
D. Eclampsia
Ans: C
150. A young lady has history of recurrent abortion. Which test should be done?
A. Russel Viper Venom Test
B. Prothrombin Time
C. Bleeding time
D. Clotting Time
Ans: A
151. A 20 year old average weight female complains of oligomenorrhoea along with facial hair.
Preliminary investigation reveals raised free testosterone levels. On Ultrasound, ovaries were
normal. Which of the following could be likely etiology?
A. Idiopathic Hirsutism
B. PCOD
C. Adrenal Hyperplasia
D. Testosterone secreting tumor
Ans: C
152. Which test is used to differentiate maternal and fetal blood cells?
A. Apt Test
B. Kleihauer-Betke Test
C. Bubblin Test
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D. Osmotic Fragility Test
Ans: A
153. Lymph nodes negative with positive peritoneal cytology is staged as-
A. Stage IIIA
B. Stage IIIB
C. Stage IIIC1
D. Stage IIIC2
Ans: B
154. Treatment of Ca Cervix IIIB include
A. Wertheims Hysterectomy
B. Schauta's Hysterectomy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Intracavity Brachytherapy followed by External Beam Radiotherapy
Ans: D
155. At which time in the pregnancy, woman has maximum cardiac strain?
nd
A. 2 Trimester
B. At the time of delivery
C. Immediately following delivery
Ans: C
156. A Pregnant female feeling dizziness in supine position; feels on lateral position and after
getting up. This must be due to
A. IVC Compression
B. Raised intra-abdominal pressure
C. Decreased blood flow to placenta
D. Compression of Sympathetic Chain
Ans: A
157. Awoman presented with carcinoma cervix FIGO STAGING II-III, which of the following
treatment is recommended?
A. Trichelectomy
B. Radiotherapy plus HPV vaccine
C. Chemo-radiotherapy
D. Hysterectomy
PEDIATRICS
158. Which of the following will favor the diagnosis of RDS in new born?
A. Receipt of antenatal steroids
B. Air bronchogram in chest X-ray
C. Manifests after 6 hours
D. Occurs after term gestation
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Ans: B
159. A neonate is diagnosed with Bell's Stage 1 Necrotizing and he is stable. Treatment is
A. Conservative and Antibiotics
B. IV Antibiotics and Removal of necrosed portion of Intestine
C. Drainage
D. Resection Anastomosis
Ans: A
160. A Toddler has few drop of blood coming out of rectum. Probable diagnosis is
A. Juvenile Rectal Polyp
B. Adenoid Poliposis Coli
C. Rectal Ulcer
D. Piles
Ans: A
161. In Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy, most common presentation is (Twisted Repeat)
A. Absent Seizure
B. Myoclonus
C. Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizure on going to sleep
D. Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizure on going on awakening
Ans: B
162. A child was taken for CECT Chest and contrast was injected; child had swelling which
gradually increased. There is numbness. There is pain on passive extension of fingers. He is
not allowing you to touch the arm. Pluse was present. What will you do?
A. High Dose Prednisolone
B. Arterial Thrombectomy
C. Immediate Fasciotomy
D. Antihistaminics / Anticoagulants
Ans: A
163. Recurrent URTI in 5 year old child with ear problems, mouth breathing. Treatment is
A. Myringotomy
B. Myringotomy with Grommet insertion
C. Adenoidectomy with Grommet insertion
D. Tonsillectomy
Ans: C
164. A child with recurrent seizures, palpable plaques in the Ophthalmic and Maxillary
distribution. Mother complaints, it is present since birth and not changed since then. Diagnosis
is
A. Congenital Hemangioma
B. Sturge-Weber Syndrome
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C. Infantile Hemangioma
D. Tuberous Sclerosis
Ans: B
SKIN
165. Which of the following is characteristic of Basal Cell Carcinoma?
A. Four Cells
B. Nuclear Palisades
C. Keratin Pearls
Ans: B
165. A 24 year old man had multiple small hypopigmented patches around hair follicles on
upper chest and back. Macules were with fine scaling which coalesced later. Patient has
received treatment before 1 year andit was treatted. Investigation to be done is
A. KOH preparation
B. Tzank test
C. Slit Skin Smear
D. Skin biopsy of coalesced lesion
Ans: A
167. A child with itchy erythematous lesion on face and palm & soles. Possible diagnosis is
A. Scabies
Ans: A
168. A patient has multiple hypoaesthetic and hypopigmented patches on lateral aspect of
forearm. Abundance of acid fast bacilli and Granulomatous inflammation is seen. Diagnosis is
A. Lepromatous Leprosy
B. Tuberculoid Leprosy
C. Indeterminate Leprosy
D. Borderline Leprosy
Ans: D
169. Characteristic of Borderline Leprosy is
A. Inverted Saucer Appearance
B. Erythema Nodosum Leprosum
C. Hypopigmented macules/plaques all over the body
D. Glove and Stocking Anesthesia
Ans: A
170. A patient has 2 finger nails and 1 toenail tunneling since 1 year. Rapid Diagnosis is done
by
A. Woods Lamp Examination
B. KOH mount
C. Slit Smear Examination
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Ans: A
171. Aboy had itchy, excoriated papules on the forehead and the exposed parts of the arms and
legs since 3 years. The disease was most severe in rainy season and improved completely in
winter. The most likely diagnosis is (May 2004)
A. Insect Bite Hypersensitivity
B. Scabies
C. Urticaria
D. Atopic Dermatits
Ans: A
172. Which of the following is related to sunlight exposure?
A. Actinic Keratosis
Ans: A
173. A 23 year lady develops brownish pigmentation on cheeks and bridge of nose on exposure
to sun. Diagnosis is
A. Photodermatitis
B. SLE
C. Chloasma
D. Rosacea
ANESTHESIA
174. Maximum dose of Lignocaine given with Adrenaline for Occular Surgery
A. 3 mg/kg
B. 5 mg/kg
C. 7 mg/kg
D. 10 mg/kg
Ans: C
175. Lady with a history of previous C Section told the anesthetist that in spite of spinal
anesthesia, she wasaware of the procedure. What should be done to monitor depth of
anesthesia?
A. Pulse Oximetry
B. Train of Four
C. Bispectral Imaging
D. End Tidal CO2
Ans: C
176. During ET tube Intubation, by right handed person, Laryngoscope is held by which hand?
A. Left
B. Right
C. Both
Ans: A
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177. Patient with ruptured spleen is taken for laparotomy. BP is 80/50 and HR is 125/min.
Induction agent of choice
A. Sodium Thiopentone
B. Opioids
C. Ketamine
D. Halothane
Ans: C
178. A 25 year old primigravida has Mitral Stenosis and Regurgitation and is under labor. She
says she Wantsnatural delivery. Which would be the best way to provide analgesia in the
woman?
A. Neuraxial Anesthesia
B. Spinal Anesthesia
C. Inhalational Analgesia
D. Intravenous Opioids
Ans: C
179. A patient has severe Mitral Stenosis. Anesthetic agent is
A. Etomidate
B. Propramide
C. Morphine
D. Remifentanyl
Ans: A
180. All are true about "Scoline Asphyxia" EXCEPT
A. It can be inherited
B. It is due to deficiency of Cholinesterase
C. Succinylcholine can produce it
D. Patient can be saved if properly treated
Ans: B
181.Component of Sodalime for CO2 absorption in closed circuit in anesthesia is
A. NaOH
B. Ca(OH)2
C. KOH
D. Ba(OH)2
Ans: B
182. In Pregnant female, ther is decreased requirement of the anesthetic agent because of all of
the following EXCEPT
A. Exaggerated Lumbar Lordosis
B. Increased Congestion in Spinal Veins
C. Decreased Subarachnoid space
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D. Increased Sensitivity of Nerves
Ans: A or C
RADIOLOGY
183. Amifostine is
A. Radio-sensitizer
B. Radio-protector
C. Radio-modifier
D. Radio-mimetic
Ans: B
184. "Bracket Calcification" on Skull X-Ray is seen in
A. Tuberous Sclerosis
B. Sturge-Weber Syndrome
C. Lipoma of Corpus Callosum
D. Meningioma
Ans: C
185. Maximum Radiation exposure occurs in
A. Bone Scan
B. CT Scan
C. X-Ray
D. MRI
Ans: B
186. Non-iodine containing Contrast is
A. Gadolinium
B. Visipaque
C. Iohexanol
D. Diatrozoate
Ans: A
187. Stereotactic Radiotherapy is used in
A. Miliary Lung Metastasis
B. Inoperable Stage 1 Lung Tumor
C. Lymphangitis Carcinomatosa
D. Tumor at the base of tongue with Lymph Node enlargement
Ans: B
PSYCHIATRY
188. Which of the following drug is a available as depot preparation?
A. Fluphenazine
B. Aripriprazole
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C. Ziprosidone
D. Trifluperzine
Ans: A
189. All of the following are disorders of "form of thought" EXCEPT
A. Loosening of Association
B. Tangentially
C. Thought Block
D. Circumferentiality / Derealisation
Ans: C
190. PTSD is differentiated from all other disorders by
A. Recall of events and avoidance of trauma
B. Nightmares about events
C. Autonomic arousal and anxiety
D. Depression
Ans: A
191. Brain is considered responsive because
A. It has control centers for all motor actions and sensory inputs
B. It can be profoundly affected by external environment
C. Every cell of brain has specifiic function
D. It acts as a closed system, responding to internal stimuli but not the external stimuli
Ans: B
ORTHOPEDICS
192. Gallow's Traction is used for
A. Shaft of Femur
B. Neck of Femur
C. Shaft Tibia
D. Tibial Tuberosity
Ans: A
193. A patient met with Road Traffic Accident with injury to left knee. Dial test was positive.
What could be the cause?
A. Medical Collateral Ligament Injury
B. Posterolateral Corner Injury
C. Lateral Meniscus Tear
D. Medial Meniscus Injury
Ans: B
194. After lifting something heavy from ground, a patient complaints of back pain, which is
radiating to lateralleg and great toe of lower limb. Most probable diagnosis would be
A. L5-S1 disc prolapse
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B. L4-L5 disc prolapse
C. L3-L4 disc prolapse
D. L5 fracture
Ans: B
195. A person is able to abduct his arm, internally rotate it, place the back of hand
onlumbosacral joint, but is not able to lift it from back. What is etiology?
A. Subscapularis tendon tear
B. Teres major tendon tear
C. Long head of biceps tendon tear
D. Acromioclavicular joint dislocation
Ans: A
196. A new born presents with inverted foot and the dorsum of the foot cannot touch the anterior
tibia. The most probable diagnosis is
A. Congenital Vertical Talus
B. Arthrogryposis Multiplex
C. CTEV
D. Flat Foot
Ans: A
197. 8 year old child has fever with pain and swelling in mid-thigh. Codman'striangle is seen on
X-Ray. Histopathology shows small round cell positive for MIC-2. Diagnosis is
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Ewing's Sarcoma
Ans: B
198. A patient comes to the emergency department after alcohol binge previous night and
sleeping on armchair. In the morning he is unable to move his hand and diagnosis of ulnar
nerve palsy is made. What is the next line of management?
A. Wait and Watch
B. Knuckle Bender Splint
C. Immediately operate and explore the nerve
D. Do EMG study after 2 days
Ans: D
199. An old lady had a history of fall in bathroom once couldn't move. Afterwards, she had legs
inexternally rotated position. There was tenderness in Scarpa's triangle and limb movement
could not been done due to pain. No hip fracture was seen on X-Ray. Next step?
A.MRI
B. Repeat X-Ray after one week
C. Joint Aspiration
D. Give analgesic and Manipulate
Ans: A
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This post was last modified on 30 July 2021