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Download DNB 2020 June 2000 Question Paper With Answers Question Paper

Download Diplomate of National Board (DNB) 2020 June 2000 Question Paper With Answers Question Paper

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JIPMER 2000
1. The aortic opening in the diaphragm is at the level of
A. T10
B. T12
C. T6
D. T8
Ans. B
2. Which of the following is not a content of the pudendal canal
A. Pudendal nerve
B. Internal pudendal artery
C. Internal pudendal vein
D. Nerve to obturator internus
Ans. D
3. All the following are general visceral efferent
except
A. Nucleus ambiguous
B. Dorsal nucleus of
vagus
C. Salivatory nucleus
D. Edinger Westphal nucleus
Ans. A
4. Angle formed by the shaft and the neck of the femur is ___
degrees
A. 115
B. 125
C. 135
D. 145
Ans. B
5. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ
A. Spleen
B. Lymphnode
C. Bonemarrow
D. Liver
Ans. C
6. Tongue is protruded by which of the following muscle
A. Hyoglossus
B. Palatoglossus
C. Myelohyoid
D. Genioglossus
Ans. D
7. All of the following are features of flat type of pelvis
except
A. Narrow subpubic angle
B. Short concave sacrum
C. Divergent side walls
D. Wide sciatic notch
Ans. A
8. A lesion involving the C8 nerve root will affect
A. Extensors of fingers and wrist
B. Flexors of fingers and wrist
C. Small muscles of hand
Ans. B
9.Dorsal scapular nerve supplies
A. levator scapulae and rhomboids
B. supraspinatus and infra spinatus
C. lattismus dorsi
D. serratus anterior
Ans. A
10. With foot off the ground and knee flexed, medial rotation of tibia is
brought about by
A. Popliteus
B. gastrocnemius
C. vastus medialis
D. adductor magnus
Ans.
PHYSIOLOGY
11. 90% of CO 2 in blood is transported as
A. Dissolved CO2
B. HCO3-
C. Carboxy haemoglobin
D. Carbamino haemoglobin
Ans. B
12. Hardy-Weinberg law is used to predict inheritance of which of the
following type
A. autosomal dominant
B. autosomal recessive
C. x-linked dominant
D. x-linked recessive
Ans. B
13. Intercalating bridges in sarcomere are formed
by
A. actin
B. myosin
C. tropomyosin
D. calmodulin
Ans. A
14. Blood flow changes are least during exercise in
A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Skin
Ans. A
15. The main fuel used during starvation by a healthy adult
is
A. free fatty acids
B. amino acids
C. glucose
D. ketone body
Ans. C?
16. Which of the following sensations is not converging on
hypothalamus
A. smell
B. fine touch
C. hearing
D. vision
Ans. C
17. If acid is added to a medium containing intact mitochondria which of the
following is seen
A. uncoupling of phosphorylation
B. inhibition of Electron Transport Chain
C. inhibition of phosphorylation
D. generation of ATP
Ans.
18. Instrumental conditioning in learning was introduced and demonstrated
by
A. Pavlov
B. Skinner
C. Freud
D. Watson
Ans. B?
19. Endothelium derived relaxation factor is supposed to be
A. Nitric oxide
Ans. A
20. The fine movements of voluntary muscles are controlled
by
A. Anterior corticospinal tract
B. Lateral corticospinal tract
C. Tectospinal
D. Vestibulospinal
Ans.
BIOCHEMISTRY
21. Features of Vitamin C deficiency is due to defect of which
enzyme
A. Lysyl hydroxylase
B. Lysyl oxidase
C. Procollagen peptidase
Ans. A
22. Okazaki pieces are seen in
A. DNA repair
B. DNA replication
C. Transcription
D. Translation
Ans. B
23. Major Histocompatibility Complex is located
on
A. Long arm of chromosome 6
B. Short arm of chromosome 6
C. Long arm of chromosome 7
D. Short arm of chromosome 7
Ans. B
24.Which of the following ketone bodies is commonest following prolonged
starvation
A. Aceto acetate
B. B-hydroxy buryrate
C. acetone
D. alpha ketoglutarate
Ans. B?
25. cAMP is degraded by
A. Phosphodiesterase
B. Phosphokinase
C. Phosphatase
D. Xanthine oxidase
Ans. A
MICROBIOLOGY
26. Bacterial adherence to epithelium is mediated through
A. pili
B. fimbriae
C. flagella
D. mesosomes
Ans. A
27. Which of the following organism is capsulated
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Candida albicans
Ans. B
28. Ova with lateral spines is a feature of
A. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Schistosoma mansoni
C. Schistosoma haematobium
D. Schistosoma mekongi
Ans. B
29. Which of the following is an oncogenic retrovirus
A. HTLV-1
B. HPV
C. EBV
D. HBV
Ans. A
30. Which of the following activates the alternate complement
pathway
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgD
Ans. A
31. Which of the following activates the classical complement pathway
A. Immune complex
B. Lipopolysaccharide
C. Exotoxin
Ans. A
32. Serum sickness is due to which type of hypersensitivity
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Ans. C
33. Most common site of infection with Cryptococcus neoformans is
A. Lung
B. Meninges
Ans. B
34. All are true about streptococcal infections except
A. throat infection more common in age group of 5-15years
B. skin infection more common in age <3yrs
C. 15-20% colonization of mucosal surfaces
D. scarlet fever more common <3yrs
Ans. D
PATHOLOGY
35. Which of the following is not a feature of anemia of chronic disease
A. increased TIBC
B. increased serum iron
C. increased serum ferritin
D. increased bone marrow iron
Ans. B
36. Which among the following does not secrete Interleukin 1 alpha
A. lymphocyte
B. fibroblast
C. macrophage
D. endothelium
Ans. A
37. Histological scoring' of chronic hepatitis does not include
A. periportal inflammation
B. portal fibrosis
C. bridging necrosis
D. cholestasis
Ans. D
38. Pulmonary surfactant is synthesized by
A. Type I pneumocytes
B. Type II pneumocytes
Ans. B
39. Regarding DIC all the following features are correct except
A. Increased fibrin degradation products
B. Decreased platelets
C. Increased fibrinogen
Ans. C
PHARMACOLOGY
40. Which of the following is the most beta-1 selective antagonist
A. Acebutolol
B. Atenolol
C.Metoprolol
D.Bisoprolol
Ans. D
41. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in all the following
except
A. Bilateral renal artery stenosis
B. Elderly hypertensive
C. Diabetic microalbuminuria
D. Severe renal failure
Ans. C
42. Which of the following is a cardiotoxic anticancer drug
A. bleomycin
B. doxorubicin
C. 5 FU
Ans. B
43. Opiod induced respiratory depression can be reversed
with
A. Naloxone
B. Theophylline
C. Artificial ventillation
Ans. A
44. Calcium channel blocker which is usually used in subarachnoid
hemorrhage is
A. Nimodipine
B. Diltiazem
C. Verapamil
Ans. A
45. Drug induced cirrhosis is not seen with
A. alpha methyldopa
B. phenylbutazone
C. INH
Ans. B
46. Which of the following is not used in the prophylaxis of febrile
seizures
A. sodium valproate
B. carbamazepine
C. phenobarbitone
D. diazepam
Ans. B
47. Which of the following drugs is tuberculostatic
A. Rifampicin
B. Ethambutol
C. Pyrazinamide
D. INH
Ans. B
48. Which of the following drugs will not cause hypothyroidism
A. Ethambutol
B. Lithium
C. Amiodarone
D. Pyrazinamide
Ans. D
49. Dopamine inhibits secretion of
A. Growth hormone
B. Prolactin
Ans. B
50. Which of the following is not an analeptic agent
A. Doxapram
B. Nikethamide
C. Doxacurium
D. Propylbutamide
Ans. C
51. Which of the following drugs is not used for the treatment of anaerobic
infections
A. penicillin
B. clindamycin
C. chloramphenicol
D. gentamycin
Ans. D
52. Which of the following drugs is used to treat Chlamydia infection in
pregnancy
A. Doxycyclin
B. Erythromycin
C. Mirepenam
D. Tetracyclin
Ans. B
53. Troglitazone is the drug used in the treatment of
A. petit mal epilepsy
B. type 2 diabetes mellitus
C. hyperlipidaemia
Ans. B
54. Which of the following is not an alpha-2 stimulant
A. guanabenz
B. guanadrel
C. clonidine
D. alpha methyl dopa
Ans. B
55. 99% of degradation of Iodine131 occurs in
A. 26days
B. 36days
C. 46days
D. 56days
Ans. D
56. Atropine is added with diphenoxylate to
A. Increase effect
B. decrease side effects
C. decrease abuse
D. enhance absorption
Ans. C
57. Monitoring of drug level is not needed with which of the following drugs
A. Lithium
B. L-Dopa
C. Digoxin
D. Phenytoin
Ans. B
58. Which among the following have greatest affinity for pseudocholine
esterase
A. Mivacurium
B. Atracurium
Ans. A
59. Selective decrease in IgA is seen with administration of
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Clonazepam
D. Phenobarbitone
Ans. A
60. Which of the following is prothrombotic
A. Thrombomodulin
B. PGI2
C. Heparin
D. ADP
Ans. D
61. Carbamazepine toxicity is precipitated by
A. Erythromycin
B. vitaminK
C. Theophyllin
Ans. A
FORENSIC MEDICINE
62. Which of the following is most useful for sex
determination
A. Skull
B. femur
C. pelvis
D. tibia
Ans. C
63. Which of the following is diagnostic of
drowning
A. froth in the nostrils
B. cutis anserina
C. water in the stomach
D. mud in the respiratory passages
Ans. A
64. Green colored urine is seen after ingestion of
A.copper sulphate
B.phenol
C.organophosphorus
D.cyanide
Ans. B
65. Leading questions are not permitted in
A.cross examination
B.examination in chief
C.questions by the judge
Ans. B
MEDICINE
66. Diagnosis of lung sequestration is by
A.CT
B.Angiography
C.MRI
D.X-ray
Ans. B
67. Bleeding in a case of obstructive jaundice is treated with
A.Fresh Frozen Plasma
B.Cryo precipitate
C.Whole blood
D.Buffy coat extract
Ans. A
68. Dichrotic pulse is seen in
A. Cardiac tamponade
B. Aortic regurgitation
C. dilated cardiomyopathy
D. restrictive cardiomyopathy
Ans. C
69. Which of the following ECG finding is diagnostic of cardiac ischaemia in
treadmill test
A. flat ST depression
B. upsloping ST depression
C. ventricular tachycardia
D. T wave inversion
Ans. A
70. A child presents with a history of scorpion sting. He is having increased
sweating. What is the best next step
A.lytic cocktail
B.atropine
C.antevenom
Ans. C
71. Transudative type of pleural effusion is a feature
of
A.variceal sclerotherapy
B.coronary artery bypass
C.peritoneal dialysis
D.radiation
Ans.
72. The drug of choice for type 2 lepra reaction is
A.Clofazimine
B.Chloroquin
C.Thalidomide
D.Steroids
Ans. C
73. All are true about amyotropic lateral sclerosis except
A.Bowel and bladder involvement is present
B.LMN in upper limb
C.UMN in lower limb
D.no sensory involvement
Ans. A
74. Senile plaques in brain is a feature of
A.Multiple sclerosis
B.Parkinsonism
C.Alzheimer's disease
Ans. C
75. Primary unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is a feature of
A.Dubin Jhonson syndrome
B.Rotor syndrome
C.Gilbert's syndrome
D.primary biliary cirrhosis
Ans. C
76. Most common cause of ambiguous genitalia is
A.Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
B.Klinefelter's syndrome
C.Testicular feminization
Ans. A
77. Which of the following is not an ECG sign of
hypokalemia
A.tall T waves
B.U waves
C.flat ST segment
Ans. A
78. Most common cause of myelophthisic anemia is
A.Multiple myeloma
B.NHL
C.Lukaemia
D.multiple secondaries
Ans. D?
79. Which of the following is most efficiently transmitted by needle stick
injury
A.HIV
B.Hepatitis B
C.Hepatitis C
D.CMV
Ans. B
80. Benzene induced hemolytic anemia is seen with all except
A.Non Hodgkin's lymphoma
B.AML
C.ALL
D.Aplastic anemia
Ans. A?
81. Which of the following is best used in the diagnosis of congenital syphilis
A.FTA-ABS
B.TPHA
C.IgM-FTA ABS
D.TPI
Ans. C
82.Treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin is contraindicated in
A.X-linked agammaglobulinemia
B.Kawasaki's disease
C.Guillen Barrie syndrome
D.Selective IgA deficiency
Ans. D
83.Grade 1 lymphedema means
A.pitting edema up to the ankle
B.pitting edema up to the knee
C.non-pitting edema
D.edema disappearing after overnight rest
Ans. D
84. Cause of diarrhea in Diabetes mellitus is
A.defective absorption
B.abnormality in gastrointestinal motility
C.primary mucosal disease.
Ans. B
85. Parenteral nutrition is best given through
A.femoral vein
B.saphenous vein
C.subclavian vein
Ans. C
86. The precursor of amyloid Transthyretin is deposited in which of the
following conditions
A.Alzheimer's disease
B.senile cardiac amyloidosis
C.medullary carcinoma thyroid
D.multiple myeloma
Ans. B
87. Egg shell calcification in hilar lymphnodes is a feature of
A.sarcoidosis
B.silicosis
C.lymphoma
Ans. B
88. Which of the following is not a tumor suppressor
gene
A.N myc
B.Rb
C.p53
D.Mad-max
Ans. A
89. Which of the following is the best initial screening test for thrombocyto-
penia
A.bleeding time
B.clotting time
C.platelet count
Ans. A
90. In Down's syndrome which of the following is true
A.the language defect progresses with age
b seen when mothers are aged between 30-39yrs in >50% of
cases
C.the severity of facial changes denotes the severity of mental retardation
D.seizures are common
Ans. B
91. Macula cerulea is seen in
A.Pediculosis humanis corporis
B.Pediculosis capitis
C.Phthiris pubis
Ans. C
92. Lyonization occurs usually at
A.9th day
B.16th day
C.28th day
D.36th day
Ans. B
93. Localized tetanus is due to
A.large gaping wound
B.atypical strains of bacteria
C.abnormally long incubation period
D.partial immunity
Ans. A?
94. Sphenoid wing dysplasia is seen in
A.Von Hippel Lindau's disease
B.Neurofibromatosis
C.Sturge Weber syndrome
D.Bournville's disease
Ans. B
95. CMV does not cause
A.intracranial calcification
B.congenital heart disease
C.mental retardation
D.seizures
Ans. B
96. In cow's milk allergy all are seen except
A.Irondeficiency anemia
B.bloody diarrhea
C.pulmonary hemosiderosis
D.intestinal colic
Ans. A
97. Foster's test is used in the diagnosis of
A.spastic type of Cerbral Palsy
B.hypotonic CP
C.choreo athetotic CP
D.Myasthenia gravis
Ans.
98. Features of hypothyroidism due to TRH/TSH deficiency include all the
following except
A.mental retardation
B.hypoglycemia
C.low hairline
D.micropenis
Ans.
99. Renal papillary necrosis is seen in all the following except
A.analgesic nephropathy
B.hydronephrosis
C.acute pyelonephritis
D.sickle cell disease
Ans. B
100. Rhinopharyngitis mutilans is not seen
in
A.Yaws
B.Pinta
C.Leprosy
D.Kala azar
Ans. B
101. In acute myocardial infarction the best drug to cause thrombolysis and to
start reperfusion is
A.streptokinase
B.urokinase
C.tissue plasminogen activator
D.anisoylated plasminogen streptokinase activator complex
Ans. C
102. Iliac horns are seen in
A.Nail patella syndrome
B.ankylossing spondylitis
Ans. A
103. Regarding lacunar infarcts a feature not seen is
A.multiple
B.pontine
C.severe symptoms
Ans. C
104. Diet therapy in a MI patient should start at what LDL cholesterol level
A.100mg/di
B.130mg/di
C.160mg/di
D.190mg/dl
Ans. A
SURGERY
105. 'Flower vase' appearance in IVP is seen in
A.Poly cystic kidney disease
B.Horse Shoe Kidney
C.Hydronephrosis
D.Ectopic kidney
Ans. B
106. Comma shaped calcification in soft tissues is seen with
A.Armillifer
B.Loa Loa
C.Cysticercus cellulosae
D.Guinea worm
Ans. A
107. A T2 tumor of the oral cavity near the mandible is best treated with
A.Radiotherapy
B.Chemotherapy
C.Surgery
D.Laser ablation
Ans. C?
108. Commonest type of hypospadias is
A.glandular
B.penile
C.coronal
D.scrotal
Ans. A
109. Which of the following is not a feature of Thrombo Angitis
Obliterans
A.it usually occurs before the age of 50 years
B.lower limbs are affected before upper limbs
C.there is associated phlebitis
D.femoral artery is involved
Ans. D
110. A 30 year old women is accidently found to have a wide mouthed
Meckel's-diverticulum during laprotomy.What is the best method of
treatment
A.Diverticulectomy
B.leave it alone
C.resection of diverticulum and invagination of stump
D.resection of diverticulum with a short segment of ileum and anastomosis
Ans. B
111. Radioopaque shadow seen immediately after trauma to the chest could be
due to
A.pulmonary embolism
B.pulmonary contusion
C.hemothorax
D.pneumonia
Ans. C
112. Most common cause of bloody discharge from nipple
is
A.Duct ectasia
B.Duct carcinoma
C.Duct papilloma
Ans. C
113. Compared with Crohn's disease Ulcerative colitis does not have
more
A.malignant change
B.fistula formation
C.bleeding per rectum
D.cholangio carcinoma
Ans. B
114. All are true about deQuervain's thyroiditis
except
A.Usually follows a viral infection
B.There is increased radio iodine uptake
C.Initial hyperthyroid state
D.Anti thyroids are of no use
Ans. B
115. Which of the following test is used to detect perforator incompetence in
varicose veins
A. Trendelenberg test
B. Fegan's test
C. Morissey's test
D. Homan's test
Ans. B
116. Interruption of Inferior venacava is not indicated in
A.multiple septic emboli
B.multiple small peripheral emboli
C.when anticoagulation is contraindicated
D.Ileo femoral thrombosis
Ans. C
117. Which of the following salivary gland tumors shows perineural spread
A.Warthin's tumor
B.adenoid cystic carcinoma
C.carcinoma in pleomorphic adenoma
D.mucoepidermoid carcinoma
Ans. B
118. Prolonged intake of refined foods leads to which of the following
carcinoma
A.stomach
B.gall bladder
C.colon
D.pancreas
Ans. C
119. The X-ray finding which helps to distinguish Hirschsprung's disease from
congenital mega colon is
A.Delayed evacuation of barium
B.Air fluid levels
C.Presence of a transition zone
D.Dilated bowel loops
Ans. C
120. Which of the following is not a feature of a healthy healing ulcer
A.Sloping edge
B. Undermined edge
C. Serous discharge
D. Reddish base
Ans. B
121 What is the management of a low, straight, 2cm long peri anal fistula
A. fistulectomy
B. seton repair
C. proximal colostomy
D. anal dilatation
Ans. A
122. Graft used in infra inguinal bypass is
A. PTFE
B. Dacron
C. Autologous vein
Ans. C
123. Best treatment for external hemorrhage from an extremity is
A. elevation of the limb
B. proximal tourniquet
C. direct pressure
D. ligation of the bleeding vessel
Ans. C
124. Investigation of choice for Posterior urethral valve is
A. Retrograde cystourethrogram
B. MCU
C. IVP
D. USG
Ans. B
125. Most virus associated malignancy is
A. Carcinoma cervix
B. Burkitt's lymphoma
C. Carcinoma Breast
Ans. C
126. Most common age group of benign cystic teratoma is
A. <10yrs
B. 20-40yrs
C. 40-60yrs
D. >60yrs
Ans.
127. Burns involving head face and trunk constitutes how much
percentage
A. 45%
B. 55%
C. 60%
D. 65%
Ans. A
PSM
128. Net Reproductive Rate of 1 implies a Couple Protection Rate
of
A. 50
B. 60
C. 70
D. 80
Ans. B


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129. Vector of Japanese Encephalitis in South India
is
A.Culex tritaneorhyncus
B.Anopheles
Ans. A
130. Minimum level of free chlorine in potable water is
A. 1 mg
B. 0.5mg
C. 0.2 mg
D. 0.7mg
Ans. B
131. Which of the following is true about Cohort study
A.incidence can be calculated
B.it is from effect to cause
C.it is inexpensive
D.shorter time than case control
Ans. A
132. Which of the following diseases is not included in international health
regulations
A. plague
B. yellow fever
C. cholera
D. polio
Ans. D
133. The size of sand particle in slow sand filter
is
A. 0.1 -0.2 mm
B. 0.2-0.3 mm
C. 0.3-0.4 mm
D. 0.4-0.5 mm
Ans. B
134. What is the potassium concentration in WHO ORS
solution
A. 10meq
B. 20meq
C. 30meq
D. 40meq
Ans. B
135. In the surveillance for Acute Flaccid Paralysis, the age group that is
included is below
A. 5yrs
B. 12yrs
C. 8yrs
D. 16yrs
Ans. B?
136. Which of the following is not monitored in malaria surveillance
now
A. ABER
B. Infant parasite rate
C. Annual parasite incidence
D. Slide positivity rate
Ans. B
137. Which of the following is true about Botulism
A.high fever
B.brisk reflexes
C.salivation
D.sore throat
Ans. D
138. What is the BMI(body mass index) of a male with weight 45kg and height
1.5m
A.19
B.20
C.21
D.18
Ans.B
139. Which of the following is used to destroy algae in water
A. Copper sulphate
B. Pottassium permanganate
C. Hypochlorite
D. Bleaching powder
Ans. A
140. Chikungunya virus is transmitted by all the following mosquitoes except
A. Culex
B. Anopheles
C. Aedes
D. Mansonoides
Ans. B
141. The WHO criteria for TB control means
A.Incidence of infection in cheldren less than 5yrs is <1%
Ans. A
142. Validity of a screening test includes all except
A.sensitivity
B.specificity
C.repeatability
D.accuracy
Ans. C
143.Which of the following is not sexually transmitted
A. Entameba histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Leishmania brasiliensis
Ans. D
144. According to WHO the minimum number of antenatal visits to prevent
maternal mortality is
A.3
B.6
C.9
D.12
Ans. A
145. What is the definition of blindness according to WHO
A.vision less than 3/60
Ans. A
146. Which of the following is not a priority vaccine for the first year of life
A.Hib
B.Hepatitis B
C.DPT
Ans. B
147. What is the incubation period of vaccine strain of measles virus
A. 7days
B. 10days
C. 14days
D. 18days
Ans. A
148. PQLI does not include
A.Infant Mortality rate
B.Gross national Product
C.Litreacy rate
D.Life expectancy at 1 year of age.
Ans. B
149. Which of the following rates is not only an indicator of mortality but also
of the living standard of a community
A.IMR
B.PNMR
C.MMR
Ans. A
150. Which of the following is a parametric test of significance
A. U test
B. t-test
Ans. B
151.All are components of Primary Health Care except
A.providing essential drugs
B.supplementary nutrition
C.treatment of locally endemic diseases and minor ailments
D.prevention of locally endemic diseases
Ans. B
152. Standard Normal deviate is given by the formula
A.x-`x/s
B.(x-`x)2/s
Ans. A
153. The minimum period of treatment for multibacillary leprosy
is
A. 1yr
B. 2yrs
C. 6months
D. 9months
Ans. B
154. Relative risk is assessed on the basis of
A. Strength of association
B. Possibility
C. Dose response
Ans. A
155. Median incubation period means
A. Time for 50% cases to occur
B. Time between primary case and secondary case
C. Time between onset of infection and period of maximum infectivity
Ans. A
156. In census literacy rate is assessed by
A.attended literacy classes for one year
B.ability to write signature
C.ability to read and write
Ans. C
157. Ringer lactate does not contain
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Chloride
D. Bicarbonate
Ans. D
158. Sickness benefit in ESI is for how many
days
A. 51
B. 61
C. 91
D. 71
Ans. C
ORTHOPEDICS
159. Rigid flat foot is not seen in
A. Osteo arthritis
B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. peroneal spasm
D. congenital tarsal fusion
Ans. A
160. What is the diagnostic radiological finding in skeletal flurosis
A. sclerosis of sacroiliac joint
B. interroseous membrane ossification
C. osteosclerosis of vertebral body
D. osssification of ligaments of knee joint
Ans. D?
161.Which of the following childhood disorders is a common differential
diagnosis of osteomyelitis
A.chondrosarcoma
B.Ewing's sarcoma
C.osteosarcoma
Ans. B
162. A segmental compound fracture of tibia with 1 cm skin wound is classified
as
A.Type I
B.Type II
C.Type IIIA
D.Type IIIB
Ans. A?
163. Minimum intradiscal pressure in vertebral column is seen when a person is
A. standing
B. sitting
C. lying flat
D. lying on one side
Ans.
164. What is the position of lower limb in anterior dislocation of hip
A.flexion adduction and internal rotation
B.flexion adduction and external rotation
C.flexion abduction and internal rotation
D.flexion abduction and external rotation
Ans. D
165.Which of the following is not a complication of Colle's fracture
A.Sudek's osteodystrophy
B.Non Union
C.Shoulder stiffness
D.Malunion
Ans. B
166. Median nerve involvement is most common with
A. elbow dislocation
B. supracondylar fracture
C. lateral condyle fractrue
D. olecranon fracture
Ans. B
167. Earliest bone to ossify is
A. Clavicle
B. Tibia
C. Sternum
D. Ribs
Ans. A
ENT
168.Bezold's abscess is seen at
A.petrous tip
B.Mastoid tip
C.digastric triangle
D.subdurally
Ans. B
169. Which of the following is not a feature of
Rhinosporidiosis
A.Bleeding polyp
B.Russel bodies are seen
C.Oral Dapsone is useful in treatment
D.bleeding is present
Ans. B
170. In a patient with hypertrophied adenoids the voice abnormality that is
seen is
A.rhinolalia clausa
B.rhinolalia aperta
C.hotpotato voice
Ans. A
171. Abductor of the vocal cord is
A.lateral cricoarytenoid
B.cricothyroid
C.posterior cricoarytenoid
Ans. C
172. Cottel's test is used to test the patency of the nares
in
A.Atrophic rhinitis
B.Rhinosporidiosis
C.Deviated nasal septum
D.Hypertrophied inferior turbinate
Ans. C
173. Which of the following is not seen in Menier's disease
A.vertigo
B.tinnitus
C.conductive deafness
Ans. C
174. Which of the following ECG finding is associated with congenital
deafness
A.delta wave
B.long QT
C.short PR interval
Ans. B
175. Which among the following is not true about otosclerosis
A.hearing better in louder conditions
B.Eustachian tube is always abnormal
C.tympanic membrane is normal
D.bilateral progressive conductive deafness
Ans. B
176. For Grommet tube insertion in serous otitis media, the incision on
tympanic membrane is made on
A.anteroinferior quadrant
B.anterosuperior quadrant
C.posterosuperior quadrant
D.posteroinferior quadrant
Ans. A
177. What is the symptom of a person with unilateral abductor
paralysis
A.dyspnea on exertion
B.transient hoarseness
C.husky voice
D.inspiratory stridor
Ans. B
178. Regarding acute vestibular neuronitis all are true
except
A.tinnitus and vertigo developing over 1-2 weeks
B.high frequency sensory hearing loss
C.spontaneous nystagmus is present
D.usually follows an upper respiratory tract infection
Ans. B
179. Most common complication of tracheostomy is
A.pneumothorax
B.surgical emphysema
C.injury to the large vessels
D.injury to esophagus
Ans. B
EYE
180. Cherry red spot in retina is a feature of
A.Infantile Gaucher's disease
B.Niemann Pick disease
C.Fabry's disease
Ans. B
181. Preganglionic and post ganglionic Horner's syndrome are differentiated
by application of
A.Atropine
B.Pilocarpine
C.Timolol
D.Hydroxy amphetamine
Ans. D
182. Axial proptosis is caused by
A. blow out fracture of the orbit
B. maxillary tumor invading the orbit
C. frontal mucocele
D. optic glioma
Ans. D
183. Which of the following is used for treatment of
myopia
A. Nd YAG laser
B. Excimer laser
C. Argon laser
D. Hormium laser
Ans. B
184. Sun flower cataract is seen in
A.Blunt trauma
B.Diabetes
C.Chalcosis
D.Argyriosis
Ans. C
185. Steroid may be used in the treatment of which of the following type of
herpes keratitis
A. Superficial punctate keratitis
B. Dendritic ulcer
C. Geographic ulcer
D. Disciform keratitis
Ans. D
186. Which of the following is the cause of blindness in partial retinal branch
vein occlusion
A. Cystoid macular edema
B. Macular hemorrhage
C. Vitreous hemorrhage
Ans. A
187. Miotics are useful in which type of squint
A. Accomodative squint
B. Paralytic squint
C. Divergant squint
D. Congenital squint
Ans. A
188. Extra capsular extraction of lens is not possible in
A. hypermature cataract
B. immature cataract
C. lens subluxation
D. developmental cataract
Ans. C
189. KF ring in Wilson's disease is seen at the level of
A. Deschmet's membrane
B. epithelium
C. endothelium
D. stroma
Ans. A
190. Treatment of congenital dacryocystitis is
A.dacryocystectomy
B.hydrostaticmassage
C.probing and syringing with antibiotics
D.dacryocystorhinostomy
Ans. B
191.Cattle truck appearance on fundus examination is a feature of
A.CRVO
B.Incomplete CRAO
C.Incomplete CRVO
D.Hypertensive retinopathy
Ans. B
192.Whorled keratopathy is seen with the use of
A. Digoxin
B. Amiodarone
C. Ethambutol
Ans. B?
PSYCHIATRY
193. Reversible dementia is a feature of
A.Alzheimer's disease
B.Pick's disease
C.Multiinfarct dementia
D.Hypothyroidism
Ans. D
194. Which of the following is not a classical symptom of depression
A.altered sleep pattern
B.weight loss
C.guilt
D.decreased apettite
Ans. C?
195. Psychomotor symptoms are associated with which type of
schizophrenia
A.hebephrenic
B.catatonic
C.paranoid
D.simple
Ans. B
196. Which of the following is a first rank symptom in
Schizophrenia
A.perceptional delusions
B.thought insertion
C.perceptional hallucinations
Ans. B
A I P P G
197. Which of the following is not seen in Korsakoff's syndrome
A.clear consciousness
B.inabiliity to learn new things
C.hallucinations
D.confabulation
Ans. C
198. Wernicke Korsakoff's syndrome is due to the deficiency of which of the
following
A.Pyridoxine
B.Thiamine
C.Vitamin B12
D.Riboflavin
Ans. B
199. The type of treatment which can be used for mental retardation is
A.Psychoanalysis
B.Family therapy
C.Transaction analysis
D.Rapid emotive treatment and response
Ans.
200. deJavu phenomenon means
A.feeling that familiar things look unfamiliar
B.individual feels that he knows the surroundings even though he is new to it
Ans. B
SKIN
201. Condyloma accuminatum is produced by which type of papilloma
virus
A.HPV 6-16
B.HPV 6-11
C.HPV 16-18
D.HPV 11-18
Ans. B
202. Herald patch is seen in
A.pityriasis rosea
B.lichen planus
C.DLE
Ans. A
203. Which of the following is not a pyoderma
A.Furuncle
B.Ecthyma
C.Pyoderma gangrenosum
D.Carbuncle
Ans. C
204.Treatment of choice for disseminated gonococcal infection is
A.penicillin
B.ceftriaxone
Ans. B
205. Epidemic tenia capitis is caused by
A.Trichopyton mentagrophytes
B.Trichophyton rubrum
C.Microsporum audoni
Ans. C
206. Scabies in children differs from that in adults in that it affects
A.webspace
B.face
C.genitalia
D.axilla
Ans. B
207. A smear from a genital lesion shows Donovan bodies. The diagnosis is
A.Lymphogranuloma venerium
B.Chancroid
C.Granuloma inguanale
Ans. C
208. Photosensitivity is seen in all except
A. SLE
B. Xeroderma pigmentosa
C. Poephyria cutanea tarda
D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
Ans. D
ANAESTHESIA
209. Which of the following induction agent is used to produce a 'street-fit'
person following surgery
A.midazolam
B.propofol
C.alfentanyl
D.thiopentone
Ans. B
210. Which of the following reacts with Soda lime in anaesthetic circuits
A.trichloroethylene
B.isoflurane
C.halothane
D.methoxyflurane
Ans. A
211. Which of the following anesthetics sensitizes the heart to catecholamines
A.Halothane
B.Isoflurane
C.Enflurane
Ans. A
212. Thiopentone sodium has a short duration of action
because
A.it is rapidly metabolized
B.it is rapidly redistributed
Ans. B
213. In emergency caesarian section rapid induction of anesthesia is done to
A.prevent gastric aspiration
B.prevent fetal depression
C.to decrease awareness
Ans. A
PEDIATRICS
all india pre pg inc (A I P P G)
214. In meconium aspiration syndrome all of the following are true except
A.there is always respiratory distress
B.steroids are not useful
C.ECMO may be useful
Ans. A
215. What is the percentage of steroid responders in a case of Minimal Change
disease
A.65%
B.75%
C.85%
D.95%
Ans. D
216. At what age a child is able to state correctly his name and sex
A.24months
B.36months
C.30months
D.42months
Ans. A?
217. Which of the following reflexes is present at birth
A.knee jerk
B.ankle jerk
C.biceps jerk
D.triceps jerk
Ans.
218. Swollen cherry red lip with strawberry tongue is a feature of
A.Kawasaki disease
B.Scarlet fever
Ans. A
219. Which of the following will not lead to decrease in cell mediated
immunity
A.protein energy malnutrition
B.zinc deficiency
C.selenium deficiency
D.iron deficiency
Ans. C
220. In Phenylketonuria all are true except
A.EEG abnormality in 50% of cases
B.convulsion in 25% of cases
C.Blood is drawn for testing immediately after birth
D.profuse vomiting
Ans. C
221. A 15 month old child is able to do all the following
except
A.crawl upstairs
B.make a tower of 5 cubes
C.name familiar objects
D.point to familiar things
Ans. B
GYNAE & OBST.
222. Which of the following is the commonest cause of urethritis with
leucorrhea
A.Chlamydia trachomatis
B.H.vaginalis
C.Trichomonas
D.Candida
Ans. A
223. A pregnant women presents with a placenta praevia of a major degree.
The fetus is malformeD. Which of the following will be the best line on
management
A.cesarian section
B.oxytocin drip
C.rupture of membranes
D.instillation of PG E2
Ans. A
224. Transverse lie is most likely to occur in
A.subseptate uterus
B.uterus didelphys
C.hypoplastic uterus
D.unicornuate uterus
Ans. A


225. Osiander's sign means
A. Pulsation in the lateral vaginal fornix
B. Bluish colour change in the vagina
C.Softening of the cervix
D.On bimanual palpation the fingers can be approximated as if nothing is in
between
Ans. A
226. Which of the following does not cross placenta
A.heparin
B.propranolol
C.warfarin
Ans. A
227. Magnesium sulfate as an uterine relaxant is contraindicated in following
except
A.premature rupture of membrane
B.intrauterine infection
C.myasthenia gravis
D.renal failure
Ans. B
228. Anti epileptic agent given in pregnancy is
A.phenytoin
B.sodium valproate
C.carbamazepine
D.lamotrigene
Ans. D
229. A pregnant woman with Mitral stenosis is most likely to undergo failure
in which period
A.16wks
B.24wks
C.20wks
D.28wks
Ans. D
230. CA-125 is the tumor marker for
A.colon
B.ovary
Ans. B
231. Incidence of scar rupture in a pregnant lady with previous LSCS
is
A. 0.2
B. 0.5
C. 0.7
D. 0.9
Ans.
232. Karyotype of Turner's syndrome is
A. XO
B. XX
C. XXY
D. XY
Ans. A
233. What is true about shoulder presentation
A. Ccord prolapse is common
B. 3rd degree perineal tear is common
C. Deep transverse arrest can occur
D. More common in primi
Ans.
234. Variable deceleration indicates
A.head compression
B.cord compression
C.fetal hypoxaemia
D.maternal sedation
Ans. B
235. Regarding monozygotic twins which of the following is not true
A. USG is more useful in the first half of pregnancy
B. sex discordance can occur rarely
C. always monochorionic
D. more common following ovulation induction
Ans. C
236. The placenta is formed from
A.decidua basalis
B.decidua vera
C.chorion levae
D.decidua capsularis
Ans. A
237. The level of hCG is maximum during which day of pregnancy
A.50-60
B.60-70
C.70-80
D.80-90
Ans. B
238. Failure rate of tubal sterilization is one
in
A. 100
B. 200
C. 500
D. 1000
Ans. B
239. Which cervical fibroid is most likely to cause urinary retention
A.Anterior
B.Posterior
C.Submucous
D.Subserous
Ans. A
240. Fetal lung maturity is assessed by all the following except
A. Lecithin sphingomyelin ratio
B. Nile blue sulfate test
C. Nitrazine paper test
D. Creatinine estimation of amniotic fluid
Ans. C
241. If a patient comes with complaints of post dated pregnancy what is the
first thing that you will do
A. USG
B. NST
C. Review the menstrual history once more
D. X-ray abdomen
Ans. C
242. First trimester USG is not indicated in
A.Hydramnios
B.Hyper emesis gravidarum
Ans. A
243. Parkland formula for burns is for
A.Ringer lactate
B.glucose saline
C.Normal saline
Ans. A
244. Paracusis willisi is seen in
A.stapedial fixation
B.ASOM
Ans. A
245. Mesonephric duct remnant seen in anterolateral vaginal wall is
A.Gartner's cyst
B.endometriotic cyst
C.Inclusion cyst
Ans. A
RADIOLOGY
246. Which among the following is least likely to be affected by radiation
A.skin
B.muscle
C.bone marrow
D.intestine
Ans. B
247. Bull's eye lesion in ultrasonography is seen in
A. Candidiasis
B. Aspergillosis
C. Sporotrichosis
D. Cryptococcosis
Ans. A
248. Unit of absorbed dose of radiation is
A.Becqueral
B.Gray
C.Stewart
D.Roentgen
Ans. B
249. Which of the following is a characteristic radiological finding in neonatal
necrotizing enterocolitis
A. Gas in the portal system
B. Gas in the intestinal wall
C. Pneumoperitoneum
D. Air fluid levels
Ans. B
250. Sign of contour is seen in
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. duedonal atrisia
C. Chron's disease

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