Download Diplomate of National Board (DNB) 2020 June 2003 Question Paper With Answers Question Paper
a.
Terminal bronchiole
b.
Respiratory bronchiole
c.
Tertiary bronchiole
1. In rupture of the bulbar urethra the urine is found to
extravasate into all of the following spaces except
d. Proximal bronchiole
a.
The scrotum
10. The AV node is situated in the
b.
Penis
a.
The membranous portion of intraventricular
c.
Anterior abdominal wall
septum
d.
Ischerectal fossa
b.
The muscular portion of intraventricular
2. The anti diabetic drug which also has anorectic effect is
septum
a.
Glipizide
c.
Interatrial septum
b.
Chlorpropamide
d.
Crista terminalis
c.
Gliclazide
11. The jugular foramen transmits all of the following
d.
Metformin
except
3. The intervertebral disc is related to all of the following
a.
Superior petrosal sinus
except
b.
Internal jugular vein
a.
To the aorta anteriorly
c.
Glossopharyngeal nerve
nd
b.
To the 2 lumbar nerve closely
d.
Vagus nerve
c.
The cauda equina of spinal cord
12. The relationship between Inferior vena cava and
d. Is the site of origin of Psoas major
sympathetic trunk is
a.
It is anterior to it
4. The ant diabetic drug which is considered as post
b.
Lateral to it
prandial hyperglycaemic regulator is
c.
Posterior to it
a.
Rosiglitazone
d.
Medial to it
b.
Piaglitazone
13. The maxillary sinus is best visualized in which of the
c.
Ripaglinide
following views
d.
Tolbutamide
a.
Occipitobregmatic
5. The position of the hip in osteoarthritis is
b.
Mentovertical
a.
Flexion, abduction and internal rotation
c.
Fronto-occipital
b.
Flexion, adduction and internal rotation
d. Lateral view
c.
Extension, abduction and internal rotation
d.
Flexion, abduction and external rotation
14. Which of the following are true about the causation of
6. All of the following structures arise from the embryonic
tetralogy of fallot
ectoderm except
a.
It is due to defect in formation of membranous
a.
The anterior hypophysis cerebri
part of intraventricular septum
b.
The epithelium of thyroid cartilage
b.
Failure of fusion of conus medularis and
c.
Enamel of teeth
septum secundum
d.
Epithelium lining the nasolacrimal duct
c.
Failure of fusion of septum primum with
7. Stimulation of the region over the sartorius muscle over
septum secundum
the lower part of hunters canal would cause stimulation
15. The maxillary sinus is best visualized in which of the
of which muscle
following views
a.
Cremastric
a.
Occipitobregmatic
b.
Anal
b.
Mentovertical
c.
Bulbocavernous
c.
Fronto-occipital
d.
Iliopsoas
d.
Lateral view
8. All of the following statements are true about Treacher
16. The lymphatic drainage from the ovaries and rectum
Collins syndrome except
drains into which of the following lymph nodes
a.
It is inherited as autosomal dominant
a.
Aortic
b.
The defect is due to neuronal migration
b.
Aortic and common iliac
disorder
c.
Aortic , common iliac and internal iliac
rd
c.
It is sue to 3 arch defect
d.
Aortic, common iliac, internal iliac and
d.
It occurs due to terratogenic effect of
inguinal
isotretenoic acid
9. The bronchial artery supplies the respiratory tract till the
17. The position of the hip in osteoarthritis is
a.
Flexion, abduction and internal rotation
b.
Flexion, adduction and internal rotation
c.
Extension, abduction and internal rotation
d. Flexion, abduction and external rotation
18. The drug which causes ototoxity manifesting mainly as
vestibular component is
a. Gentamycin
b.
Kanamycin
b.
Normal platelet
c.
Amikacin
c.
Decreased time on addition of ristocetin
d. Natilimicin
d. Decreased coagulation to ADP
19. There are many complications of CSOM. The Tobey
29. The most pathognomonic feature of a malignant lesion
Ayer test is used to see for which of the following
is
complication
a.
Vascular invasion
a.
Cavernous sinus thrombosis
b.
Metastasis
b.
Cerebral abcess
c.
Genetic mutation
c.
Lateral sigmoid sinus thromosis
d.
Tissue markers
d.
Petrositis
30. The nerve that supplies the pronator muscle of the distal
20. The extracellular fluid which contains increase
radioulnar joint is
potassium and low sodium ions is
a.
Deep branch of radial nerve
a.
CSF
b.
Posterior interossius nerve
b.
Ectolymph
c.
Median nerve
c.
Endolymph
d. Ulnar nerve
d.
Pleural fluid
31. Photostress test is done to test
e.
Aryepiglottic folds
a.
Macula
21. In bilateral abductor paralysis of the vocal cords the
b.
Optic nerve
voice described is
c.
Refractive error
a.
Mogiphonia
d.
Optic tract
b.
Phoneasthenia
32. Laser iridotomy is done for
c.
Good or normal
a.
Buphthalmos
d.
Woody
b.
Primary angle closure glaucoma
22. The muscles supplied by the glossopharyngeal muscle
c.
Staphyloma
include all of the following except
d.
After cataract
a.
Constrictors of pharynx
33. The markers which differentiates between a highly
b.
Stylopharyngeus
malignant cancer and a lymphoma is
c.
Taste from circumvallate pappilae
rd
a.
Neuron specific enolase
d. Sensation from 1/3 tongue
b.
Cytokeratin
23. Most of the CNS tumors in children are present in
c.
Vimentin
a.
Supratentorial region
d.
Desmin
b.
Extradural
34. The enzyme which does not take part in DNA
c.
Infratentorial region
replication is
d.
Cauda equina
a.
Restriction endonuclease
24. There is bulging of the endolymph sac in which of the
b.
Telomerases
following diseases
c. Reverse transcriptase
a.
Otospongiosis
35. The articular capsule is defective in which part of the IP
b.
Otosclerosis
joint
c.
Meniers disease
a.
Dorsum(posterior)
d.
Otitis media
b.
Ventral (anterior)
25. Tuberculosis most commonly involves which of the
c.
Lateral
following part of the larynx
d.
Medial
a.
Vocal cords
36. In high myopia which of the following is seen
b.
Subglottic region
a.
Retinal heamorhages
c.
Posterior commissure
b.
Papillitis
d.
Aryepiglottic folds
c.
Chorioretinal degeneration
26. The hypopharynx includes all of the following except
d.
Uvietis
a.
Pyriformis fossa
37. Hyperkalemia is seen in which of the following types of
b.
Epiglottis
renal tubular acidosis
c.
Post cricoid region
a.
Type I
d.
Valecula
b.
Type II
27. All of the following are coccobacilli except
c.
Type III
a.
Bordatella
d. Type IV
b.
Brucella
38. Normal anion gap acidosis is seen
c.
Klebsiella
a.
Lactic acidosis
d.
H.Infleunza
b.
Diarhrea
28. All of the following are true about von Willibrands
c.
Diabetic ketoacidosis
disease except
d.
Glycol poisoning
a. Abnormal platelet count
39. Face to pubis is seen in which type of pelvis
a.
Android
49. All of the following are indications of trail of labour
b.
Anthropoid
except
c.
Gynecoid
a.
Young primi
d. Platepyloid
b.
Vertex anterior
40. Thiamine is used in which of the following reactions
c. Breech presentation
a.
Pyruvate to oxalate
50. For brow presentation the engaging diameter is
b.
Pyruvate to acetyl coA
a.
Submentobregmatic
c.
Succinate to Fumarate
b.
Mentovertical
d. Malonate to oxaloacetate
c. Submento-occipital
41. Which of the following amino acid is both polar and
d. Occipito-bregmatic
ionic
51. The drug which is added to pyramithamine in the
a.
Aspartate
treatment of toxoplasma gondi infections is
b.
Leucine
a.
Clindamycin
c.
Glutamate
b.
Clarithromycin
d. Arginine
c.
Amikacin
42. The HLA III codes for
d.
Vancomycin
a.
Taq proteins
52. In a HIV seropositive case all of the following are
b.
Complement gene protein
causes of diarrhea except
c. Helper T cells
a.
Isospora
d. Diabetes Mellitus
b.
Acanthameoba
c.
Cryptospora
43. Zafirulukast is a drug which has found use in asthmatic
patients it acts by
53. Deceased activity of osteoblasts is caused by
a.
LOX inhibitor
a.
Parathormone
b.
Leukotrien receptor blocker
b.
Vitamin D 3
c.
Corticosterone
c.
Newer phosphodiestrase inhibitor
d.
T3 and T4
d.
Endothelin receptor blocker
44. Superior gluteal nerve supplies to all of the following
54. Perineal support is to be given during labour to prevent
muscles except
lacerations in which of the following conditions
a.
Gluteus medius
a.
Breech
b.
Gluteus minimus
b.
Shoulder
c.
Body
c.
Iliotibial tract
d.
Leg
d.
Gluteus maximus
55. Frontal EEG showing slowed delta waves is seen. The
45. Decarboxylation of which amino acid releases a
compound which has potent vasodilator effects
probable cause would be
a.
Aspartate
a.
Metabolic encephalopathy
b.
Arginine
b.
Hypoxic encephalopathy
c.
Glutamate
c. Raised intracranial pressure
d.
Histidine
d. Toxoplasma infection
46. Ross position (used in tonsillectomy ) is used for which
56. In the mass prophylaxis in filariasis in India the drug
of the following procedures
and the dosage preffered is
a.
Tracheostomy
a.
DEC 6mg/Kg for 1 day
b.
Bronchoscopy
b.
DEC 6 mg/Kg for 12 days
c.
Flexible esophagoscopy
c.
Ivermectin 24 micro/Kg
d.
Direct laryngoscopy
d.
Albendazole 400mg single dose
47. All of the following are used in monitoring use of
57. In AIDS defining illness, which of the following is not
magnesium sulphate in eclampsia except
included in the criteria
a.
Respiratory rate
a.
Candidiasis
b.
Deep tendon reflexes
b.
Cryptosporidiasis
c.
Serum calcium levels
c.
Multidermatomal herpes zoster
d.
Urine output
d.
Recurrent salmonella septicaemia
48. The drug used to treat a pregnant women with 20 week
gestation with blood pressure of 150/90 is
a.
Enalapril
58. The infection implicated in the causation of hydrops
b.
Furesemide
feotalis is
c.
Hydralizine
a.
Infectious Mononucleosis
d.
Atenolol
b.
Parvo virus 19
c.
Erythema infectiosum
d. Measles
c.
Duplex ultrasonography
59. All of the following would be positive test for
d.
Contrast venography
carbohydrate except
69. Selinium is a cofactor in which of the following
a.
Starch
enzymes
b.
Glucose
a.
Xanthine oxidase
c.
Arabinose
b.
Cytochrome oxidase
d.
Erythrose
c.
Cytochrome reductase
60. The melanocytes can be demonstrated best by
d.
Dehydrogenase
a.
PAS stain
70. The region of the brain which is responsible for the
b.
Perls stain
emotional aspect of humans is
c.
DOPA reaction
a.
Amygdala
d.
Wrights stain
b.
Frontal lobe
61. Fanconi's anaemia can be best classified as
c.
Hippocampus
a.
Constitutional anaemia
d.
Occipital lobe
b.
Immunologic anaemia
71. In lesion of ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus there
c.
Allergic anaemia
will be
d.
Autoimmune
a.
Hypersomnia
62. In a patient with anaemia the MCV-115, MCH-30 and
b.
Hyperphagia
MCHC-43 which of the following would be seen in
c.
Anorexia
peripheral smear
d.
Decreased thirst
a.
Dohle bodies
72. The complement which would stimulate the bone
b.
Malignant cells
marrow is
c.
Hypersegmented neutrophils
a.
C3b
d.
Pelger Heut anomaly
b.
C2
63. The infection implicated in the causation of hydrops
c.
C9
feotalis is
d.
C4
a.
Infectious Mononucleosis
73. In a malignant lesion-tumor which of the following
b.
Parvo virus 19
would be seen
c.
Erythema infectiosum
a.
Normal vasculature
d.
Measles
b.
No neovascularization
64. All of the following would be positive test for
c.
Contrast pooling
carbohydrate except
d.
Thickened capsule
a.
Starch
74. In isometric muscle exercise the changes seen are
b.
Glucose
a.
Increase in heart rate
c.
Arabinose
b.
Increase in diastolic pressure
d.
Erythrose
c.
Increase in systolic pressure
65. The melanocytes can be demonstrated best by
d.
Significant increase in cardiac output
a.
PAS stain
75. All of the following are currently matched except
b.
Perls stain
a.
Parietal lobe- Finger agnosia
c.
DOPA reaction
b.
Fascial canal damage-LMN fascial palsy
d.
Wrights stain
c.
Inferior colliculus- internuclear
66. Fanconi's anaemia can be best classified as
opthalmoplegia
a.
Constitutional anaemia
d.
Temporal lobe ?superior quadrantinopia
b.
Immunologic anaemia
76. Blockade of the mainstem of the MCA of the dominant
c.
Allergic anaemia
side would lead to all of the following except
d.
Autoimmune
a.
Contralateral hemiplegia
67. In a patient with anaemia the MCV-115, MCH-30 and
b.
Global aphasia
MCHC-43 which of the following would be seen in
c.
Homonymous hemianopia
peripheral smear
d.
Gaze palsy with eyes directed towards
a.
Dohle bodies
contralateral side
b.
Malignant cells
c.
Hypersegmented neutrophils
d.
Pelger Heut anomaly
77. The central sulcus of the brain is classified as
68. The appropriate test used to asses the venous
a.
Axial sulcus
thrombosis is
b.
Operculated sulcus
a.
I 131 fibrinogen study
c.
Limiting sulcus
b.
Doppler ultrasound
d.
Completed sulcus
78. The oxygen haemoglobin curve would shift to the right
b.
Hypokalemia
due to all of the following except
c.
Irritable bowel disease
a.
Increased temperature
d.
Peutz Jeghers syndrome
b.
Decreased pH
88. In a patient is brought unconscious in the casualty and is
c.
Feotal haemoglobin
found to have PaCo2-70, PaO2-50, and pH is 7.17. He
d.
Increase in 2,3 DPG
is most probably cause is
a.
Hypoxic respiratory failure
79. Tc99 is derived from which of the following
b.
Central respiratory depression
a.
Str-99
c.
COPD
b.
Mo-99
d.
Hypersensitive pneumonitis
c.
Str-90
89. A 40 weeks child can do all of the following except
d.
Mo-90
a.
Play a simple ball game
80. The rays used for cold sterilization is
b.
Cruise
a.
UV rays
c.
Pick up objects inadvertently
b.
Gamma rays
d.
Wave bye bye
c.
Alpha rays
d.
Beta rays
90. ANCA positive diseases are all of the following except
81. All of the following are tributaries for the fascial vein
a.
Microscopic polyangitis
except
b.
Henoch scheonlien purpura
a.
Transverse fascial vein
c.
Churgs Strauss syndrome
b.
External branch of palatine vein
d.
Wegeners Granulomatosis
c.
Tonsillar vein
91. A person stumbled but did not fall. He felt pain and
d.
Pharyngeal vein
noticed a swelling in the leg . The most propable cause
82. Teacher A's class showed a standard deviation of 4.9
is
and teacher B's class showed a standard deviation of
a.
Cruciate ligament injury
2.5. This shows that
b.
Meniscal injury
a.
Mr. A's class is more homogenous then B's
c.
Lateral collateral ligament
b.
Mr. B's class is less heterogenous then A's
d.
Patellar fracture
c.
Mr. A's class is showing better results then B's
92. Which of the following internal hernias is associated
d.
Mr B's class is showing better results then A's
with a sac
83. The structure which plays a role in muscle tension is
a.
Epiploic foramen
a.
Golgi tendon organ
b.
Transmesocolon
b.
Muscle spindle
c.
Transmesentric
c.
Annular spiral bundle
d.
Through the broad ligament
d.
Fascicular bundle
93. In ARDS the pathology underlying the disease is
84. Which of the following is not used therapeutically in
a.
Diffuse infiltration of plasma cells in the intra-
radiotherapy
alveolar regions
a.
Neutrons
b.
Diffuse alveolar damage
b.
Positrins
c.
Organizing bronchiolitis
c.
Electrons
d.
Diffuse consolidation
d.
Alpha rays
94. The Malampati scoring is done to asses the patients
85. The most common indication for surgery in chronic
a.
Consciousness
pancreatitis is
b.
Airways
a.
Doudenal obstruction
c.
Cardiac status
b.
Pain
d.
Renal functioning
c.
Infection
d.
Malignant transformation
95. In a individual with Indeterminate leprosy is found to
86. Hemihypertrophy of one side of the body is associated
mitsuda test negative. This would most likely progress
with which of the following diseases of the kidney
into which of the following leprosy
a.
Alport's
a.
Boderline tuberculoid
b.
Medullary sponge kidney
b.
Boderline leprosy
c.
Medullary cystic kidney
c.
Lepromatous leprosy
d.
Adult polycystic kidney diseases
d.
Tuberculoid leprosy
87. An adult with a rectal polyp is likely to have which of
96. A flat polypoid, polygonal purplish lesion is classically
the following associated disorder
seen in
a. Familial adenomatosis polyposis
a. Psoriasis
b.
Lichen planus
c.
Type III
c.
Pemphigus vulgaris
d.
Type IV
d.
Pemphigoid
107. Suicidal attempts are more commonly seen all of the
97. In a patient with ectopic kidney the adrenals would
following except
most likely be located
a.
Old age
a.
In the pelvis
b.
Severe depression
b.
In the opposite side
c.
Panic attacks
c.
In normal position
d.
Behind the spleen
d.
Bipolar disorder
98. All of the following are about the luteal cyst of the
108. Single gene disorder causes all of the following diseases
ovary except
except
a.
Associated with pregnancy
a.
Familial hypercholesteroleamia
b.
May rupture causing an acute abdomen
b.
HOCM
c.
May attain a large size if left untreated
c.
Systemic hypertension
d.
Treated by oral contraceptive pills
d.
Sickle cell disease
99. Diffussion hypoxia is known to occur when use of
109. Post ovulation there is a rise in all of the following
which of the following anaesthetic agents
hormones except
a.
Halothane
a.
Estradiol
b.
Nitrous oxide
b.
Estriol
c.
Ethylene oxide
c.
Progesterone
d.
Sevoflourane
d.
Inhibin
100.Pediculosis papebraum is caused by
110. Which of the following is not a contraindication for trial
a.
Body louse
of labour
b.
Pubic louse
a.
Breech
c.
Head louse
b.
Central placenta previa
d.
Pediculosis semian species
c.
Hysterotomy
101.Congenital atresia is seen most commonly in which
d.
Post myomectomy
location
111.Sodium retention is seen in use of
a.
Ileal
a.
Triamcinolone
b.
Doudenal
b.
Hydrocortizone
c.
Proximal colon
c.
Prednisolone
d.
Distal colon
d.
Corticosterone
102. According to Samson's theory endometriosis is caused
112. In benign prostatic hyperplasia all of the following are
by
seen except
a.
Lymphatic embolization
a.
Increased trabeculations in bladder
b.
Hormonal imbalance
b.
Enlargement of lateral lobes of prostate
c.
Endometrial metaplasia
c.
Detrusor instability
d.
Transmembrane permeation
d.
Narrowing of urethra
103. The maturation of graafian follicles is best monitored by
113. All of the following are seen in bronchial cyst except
a.
Endometrial biopsy
a.
Lined by sqaumous epithelium
st
b.
Transvaginal ultrasound
b.
Arise from 1 bronchial cleft
c.
Progesterone levels
c.
May be transilluminant
d.
Temperature changes
d. May contain cholesterol
114. All of the following cause increase in acid secretion
104. Primary ovarian failure is treated by
except
a.
GnRH levels
a.
Acetyl choline
b.
FSH
b.
Histamine
c.
Oestrogen and progesterone supplementation
c.
Gastrin
d.
Bromocriptine
d.
Prostaglandins
105. In median episiotomy which of following is seen
a.
Increased blood loss
115. All of the following are seen in COPD except
b.
Increased dyspareunia later
a.
Descent of trachea during inspiration
c.
Increased pain
b.
Decreased compliance
106. The type of uroporphyrinogens and
c.
Decreased FeV1/Vc ratio
coproporphyrinogens seen in congenital erythropoitic
d.
Increased residual volume
porphyreas is
116. Which of the following is not a stage of Pneumonia is
a.
Type I
a. Congestion
b.
Type II
b.
Resolution
c.
Molluscum contagiosum
c.
Organization
127. The A-V fistula made in dialysis is associated with all
d.
Hepatization
of the following complications except
117. Avascular necrosis is seen in all of the following except
a.
High output heart failure
a.
Upper end of humerus
b.
Primary thrombus
b.
Body of talus
c.
Deep vein thrombus
c.
Head of femur
d.
Aneurysm formation
d.
Scapula
128. A painter complains of pain in the shoulder joint during
118. In a patient with congenital pseudoarthosis of tibia
work. The most likely cause is
treatment is by
a.
Rotator cuff injury
a.
Excision
b.
Bicipital tendinitis
b.
Fibular grafting
c.
Subacromial bursitis
c.
Arthrodesis
d.
Acromioclavicular disruption
d.
Open reduction, bone grafting and internal
129. All of the following are true about osteoporosis except
fixation
a.
Milkmans fracture
119. Unstable injury of the spine is seen in
b.
Bending of long bones
a.
Flexion injury
c.
Hypercalcemia
b.
Compression injury
d.
Vertebral compression fractures
c.
Flexion-rotation injury
130.Cutaneous manifestations of AIDS commonly include
d.
Extensor injuries
a.
Atopic dermatitis
120.Pottassium is absorbed in
b.
Discoid lupus
a.
Thick ascending limb of henle
c.
Seborriec dermatitis
b.
Proximal convoluted tubule
d.
Lichen planus
c.
Distal convoluted tubule
131. Lupus pernio is skin lesion associated with
d.
Collecting duct
a.
Tuberculosis
121. Egg on cup appearance in intravenous urography is seen
b.
Sarcoidosis
in
c.
Syphillis
a.
Pappillary necrosis
d.
Histoplasmosis
b.
Megacalyces
132.Septic ulcer has which type of edge
c.
Medullary sponge kidney
a.
Undermined
d.
Adult polycystic kidney disease
b.
Pearly
122. An elderly but healthy patient with a 4 part fracture of
c.
Everted
the proximal humerus is best treated by
d.
Sloping edge
a.
Cuff and sling
133. The triangle between the three points in the elbow is not
b.
K-wire fixation
disrupted in which of the following
c.
Open reduction and internal fixation
a.
Posterior dislocation of elbow
123.All of the following features are seen in an infant of
b.
Lateral condyle fracture
cerebral palsy except
c.
Supracondylar fracture
a.
Decreased physical activity
b.
Unable to suck
d.
Medial condyle fracture
c.
Fisting of hand is seen
d.
Flexor hypertonia
134. Horizontal transfer of R factor occurs from one bacteria
124. Granular IgA deposition in histological examination is
to another by
seen in which of the following skin disorders
a.
Transformation
a.
Bullous pemphigoid
b.
Transversion
b.
Pemphigus Vulgaris
c.
Conjugation
c.
Dermatitis Herpetiformis
d.
Transduction
d.
Herpes Gestationalis
135. A study revealed the following data-1,3,8,4,5 and 3.
The mean and median of the above data is
125. All of the following are intrinsic causes of skin lesions
a.
3.5 and 4
except
b.
4 and 3.5
a.
Atopic dermatitis
c.
4 and 3
b.
Pytiriasis alba
d.
4 and 4
c.
Photosenstive allergic contact dermatitis
136. To calculate the confidence limits the indices used are
d.
Seborriec dermatitis
a.
Mean and range
126. In all of the following disorders virus has been
b.
Median and standard error
implicated as causative agent except
c.
Mean and standard error
a.
Condyloma accuminata
d.
Mode and standard deviation
b.
Condyloma lata
137. Subclinical cases are not seen in which of the following
a. Mumps
b.
Chicken pox
148. All of the following are true about diphtheria except
c.
Typhoid
a.
One infection causes life long immunity
d.
Diptheria
b.
Incubation period is 2-5 days
138. Free DNA is transferred across the cell membranes by
c.
Subclinical cases are more common
a.
Transformation
d.
Nasal carriers are most dangerous
b.
Transduction
149.Adrenaline is not used along with local anaesthesia in
c.
Conjugation
which of the following areas
d.
Tranversion
a.
Epidural space
139. Which of the following is an atypical antipsychotic drug
b.
Lower limb
a.
Resperidone
c.
Penis
b.
Clozapine
d.
Back
c.
Pimozide
150. Most common site of breast carcinoma is in which of
d.
Sertraline
the following areas of the breast
140. In malaria the type of cells which are responsible for
a.
In the region of the nipple
recurrence is
b.
Inner lower quadrant
a.
Shizonts
c.
Upper outer quadrant
b.
Hypnozoites
d.
Upper inner quadrant
c.
Merozoites
151. Worst prognosis in breast carcinoma is seen in
d.
Sporozoites
a.
Colloid
141. Exchange transfusion is required when the heamatocrit
b.
Lobular
in the infant reaches
c.
Inflammatory
a.
60
d.
Papillary
b.
65
152.Double duct sign is seen
c.
70
a.
Benign biliary stricture
d.
75
b.
Combined biliary and pancreatic duct
142. Carrier state is not seen in which of the following
obstruction
a.
Whooping cough
c.
Malignant biliary stricture
b.
Diptheria
d.
Doudenal obstruction
c.
Typhoid
d.
Polio
153. Which of the following is not a coccobaccili
a. H.Infleunza
143. The Ty21a vaccine for typhoid can be given to children
b.
Bordetella
after what age
c.
Brucella
a.
2 yrs
d.
Pseudomaonas
b.
6 yrs
154. Blood broth contains blood and broth in what ratio
c.
8yrs
a.
1:2
d.
10yrs
b.
1:5
144. All of the following are normal physiologic changes
c.
1:10
that can be seen in pregnancy except
d.
1:20
rd
a.
3 heart sound
155. Growth rate of bacteria is constant in which of the
b.
diastolic murmur
following phases of bacterial growth curve
c.
systolic apical murmur
a.
Log phase
th
d.
Apical impulse in 4
b.
Lag phase
space
145. The string of beads appearance is seen in which of the
c.
Exponential phase
following
d.
Stationary phase
a.
Small bowel obstruction
156. Intracellular bacteria have prolonged survival by
b.
Intusseception
inhibiting
c.
Crohns disease
a.
Formation of phagolysosomes
d.
Diverticulosis
b.
Hydrolase
146. Russel bodies are seen in which of the following
c.
Catalase
a.
Transformed lymphocytes
d.
Hydrogen peroxide
b.
Aging plasma cells
157. When the environmental temperature is more then the
c.
Hypersegmented neutrophils
body temperature the loss of heat occurs through which
d.
Platelets
of the following mechanisms
147. Which of the following is true about Aschoff bodies
a.
Radiation
a.
Fibrinoid necrosis
b.
Evaporation
b.
Perivascular location
c.
Conduction
c.
Multinucleated histiocytes
d.
Convection
d.
B lymphocytes infiltration
158. When a substance is added to prevent growth of one
a.
Rheumatoid arthritis
bacteria which at the same time makes it conducive for
b.
Sicca syndromes
the growth of another bacteria is referred to as
c.
Vitamin A deficiency
a.
Enriched media
d.
Herpetic keratitis
b.
Enrichment media
169. In a patient with diffuse macular retinopathy the
c.
Selective media
treatment would be
d.
Differential media
a.
Pan retinal photocoagulation
159. A virulent strain refers to one which
b.
Grid pattern macular photocoagulation
a.
Has ability to invade the body and multiply
c.
Macular ablation
b.
Has a high percentage of bad cases as
d.
Pan macular photocoagulation
compared to all cases with clinical
170.Prostanoids are used in all of the following except
presentations
a.
To maintain PDA before surgery
c.
The number of clinical cases being high
b.
Gastric ulcer to protect from adverse effects of
160.Inherent virulence of an organism is due to all of the
NSAIDS
following except
c.
Glaucoma
a.
Capsule
d.
In platelet coagulation disorders
b.
Lipid A
171. The temperature ideally preferred to preserve the body
c.
Adhesin
for post-mortem examination is
d.
Lysozyme
a.
-10 degrees
161. Superior quadrantinopia in children is due to
b.
0 degrees
a.
Migraine
c.
4 degrees
b.
Optic neuritis
d.
10 degrees
c.
Temporal lobe tumor
d.
Pituitary lesion
162. Photostress testing is used to test for functioning of
172. Grievious injury comes under which of the following
a.
Occipital lobe
IPC acts
b.
Macula
a.
420
c.
Optic nerve
b.
320
d.
Optic tract
c.
302
163. Exudative retinal detachment is seen in which of the
d.
300
following
173. The drug which is used along with interferons in the
a.
Penetrating injuries
treatment of hepatitis C is
b.
High myopia
a.
Lamuvudine
c.
Pre-eclampsia
b.
Ribavirin
d.
Chorioretinal degeneration
c.
Flucytosine
164.Photopsia is seen in
d.
Amantidine
a.
Optic neuritis
174. The human development index score is
b.
Retinal detachment
a.
32
c.
Open angle Glaucoma
b.
44
d.
Myopia
c.
49
165. Which part of the lens undergoes changes in shape
d.
58
during accommodation
175. Which of the following is a non parametric test
a.
Posterior peripheral part
a.
Wilcoxin F test
b.
Posterior central
b.
Chi square test
c.
Anterior peripheral part
c.
T test
d.
Anterior central
d.
Mann Whitney U test
166. For chemical analysis the best transport media is
176. The saturation curve of haemoglobin shifts to right in
a.
Spirit
a.
Increase PaCo2
b.
Formalin
b.
Decreased pH
c.
Saturated salt solution
c.
Increased 2,3 DPG
d.
Chloroform
d.
Foetal haemoglobin
167. Macular sparing is seen in lesions occurring in
177. Increased salivation is seen in death due to which of the
a.
Optic nerve
following
b.
Optic tract
a.
Strangulation
c.
Occipital lobe
b.
Hanging
d.
Lateral geniculate body
c.
Drowning
168.Scleromalacia perforans is seen in
d.
Cyanide poisoning
178. For fixation of slide to visualize in electron microscopy
189. Which of the following extracellular fluids would have
the substance used is
high K and low Na
a.
Gluteraldehyde
a.
CSF
b.
Formalin
b.
Endolymph
c.
Nitric oxide vapour
c.
Ectolymph
179. In extrinsic clotting mechanism the activation of the
d.
Synovial fluid
pathway occurs by
190. The Glasgow coma scale utilizes all of the following
a.
Factor II
indicies except
b.
Factor XII
a.
Eye
c.
Tissue thromboplastin
b.
Bladder control
d.
Factor VIII
c.
Motor
180.Intraneuronal second messenger is
d.
Verbal
a.
Calmodulin
191. Weight divided by height raised to 2 is used as an index
b.
Neuropeptide Y
is known as
c.
Fragmin
a.
Boca's index
181. Which of the following is having quaternary structure
b.
Quetlet's index
a.
Haemoglobin
c.
Ponders index
b.
Myoglobin
c.
Alpha 1 antytripsin
d.
Potassium
192. The drug which is used in the prophylaxis of pre-
eclampsia is
182. Intracranial lesion where macular sparing occurs is in
a.
Valproate
a.
Frontal lobe
b.
Aspirin
b.
Optic tract
c.
Heparin
c.
Lateral geniculate body
d.
Prochlorperazine
d.
Occipital lobe
193. The test which is not done to test for pasteurisation is
183. The most common site of involvement of tuberculosis
a.
Methylene blue test
in larynx is
b.
Coliform count
a.
Posterior commissure
c.
Plate test
b.
Subglottic region
d.
Phosphatase test
c.
Vocal cords
194.Conversion disorder is
d.
Epiglottis
a.
Hysteria
184. When there is disparity between colposcopic findings
b.
Fugue
and Pap smear the next step would be to do
c.
Malingering
a.
Hysterectomy
195. In use of doxorubicin the toxicity to the heart can be
b.
Cone biopsy
prevented by use of which of the following
c.
Punch biopsy
a.
Amifostine
d.
Repeat pap smear
b.
Desrezoxazone
185. Which of the following diseases is not notifiable by
c.
Flucytosine
WHO
d.
Carboplatin
a.
Cholera
196. The slope in the partogram is in the shape of
b.
Yellow fever
a.
Hyperbola
c.
Plague
b.
Parabola
d.
Polio
c.
Sigmoid
186. Bacteroids cause which of the following
d.
Linear
a.
Carbuncle
197.Schatzki's rings are
b.
Furuncle
a.
Convolutions in the upper esophagus due to
c.
Necrotizing fascilculitis
tumor
187. Adenosine is used in treatment of all of the following
b.
Lower esophageal sphincter spasms
arrhythmias except
c.
Constriction ring in the lower esophagus
a.
SVT
d.
Diverticula in the mid esophagus causing
b.
Atrial flutter
esophageal spasm
c.
Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia
198. The half life of iridium used in brachytherapy is
d.
Arrhythmia with aberrant tracts
a.
6 days
188.The wear and tear pigment in the body refers to
b.
6 months
a.
Methemoglobin
c.
6 years
b.
Rhodopsin
199.Manchuesen by proxy is
c.
Lipofuscin
a.
Factitious disorder
d.
Bilirubin
b.
Malingering
c.
Hysteria
a.
Falciform ligament
d.
Conversion disorder
b.
Caudate lobe
200. Epiphyseal dysgenesis is seen in which of the following
c.
Hepatic portal vein
a.
Rickets
d.
Hepatic artery
b.
Scurvy
c.
Hypothyroidism
211. The fertility rate is maximum restored if tubectomy has
d.
Osteoporosis
been realigned at what region
201. Intracerebral calcification is seen most commonly in
a.
Isthmo-isthmic
a.
Cytomegalovirus
b.
Fimbrial end
b.
Herpes
c.
Ampullary segment
c.
Cryptococcosis
d.
Interstial segment
d.
Histoplasmosis
212.Pethidine differs from morphine in
a.
Constipation
202. Inversion of uterus is associated with shock due which
b.
Having cough suppressant properties
of the following reasons
c.
More sedation
a.
Blood loss
d. Spasm of sphincter of oddi
b.
Peritoneal stretching
213.A beta 1 blocker with beta 2 agonistic activity is
c.
Vagus hyperstimulation
a.
Esmolol
d.
Infection
b.
Carvedilol
203. The areas draining to the inguinal nodes include all of
c.
Celiprolol
the following except
d.
Sotalol
a.
Anal canal
214. All of the following are type II hypersensitivity
b.
Ischiorectal fossa
reactions except
c.
Vagina
a.
Hemolytic anemia
d.
Popliteal region
b.
Myasthenia Gravis
204. Shaving of the part to undergo surgery is ideally to be
c.
Arthus reaction
done
d.
Good Pastures syndrome
a.
The previous day
215. The most common cause of stricture in the bile duct is
b.
Can be done 6 hours before surgery
sue to
c.
Just before surgery
a.
Ascending cholangitis
d.
48 hours before surgery
b.
Post surgery-Cholecystectomy
205.The most specific marker in DIC is
c.
Malignancy
a.
Fibrinogen assay
d.
Sclerosing cholangitis
b.
D dimer assay
216. The best procedure done for ectopic pregnancy which
c.
APTT
has least recurrence rate is
d.
Bleeding time
a.
Salpingotomy
206. The bias in a study can be prevented by using which of
b.
Salpingolysis
the following studies
c.
Resection and end to end anastomosis
a.
Case control study
d.
Salpingo-ophorodesis
b.
Cohort study
217. The worst prognosis in carcinoma endometrium is seen
c.
Cross sectional study
in which of the following types
d.
Randomized control trials
a.
Pappilary type
207. The characteristic feature of trachoma is presence of
b.
Adenocarcinoma
a.
Follicles in bulbar conjunctiva
c.
Squamous type
b.
Follicles in Palpebral conjuntiva
d.
Clear cell type
c.
Papillae in bulbar conjunctiva
218. The number of ATP's hydrolysed in the synthesis of
d.
Follicles over the cornea
proteins for formation of 1 peptide bond is
208. The gene known as the guardian gene or the policeman
a.
1
gene is
b.
2
a.
Abl gene
c.
3
b.
P53
d. 4
c.
Myc
219.Pharmacogenetics refers to
d.
Neu
a.
The variation in the metabolism of the drugs.
209. The antibiotic prophylaxis in surgery is given
b.
The variation in the response of the drug due to
a.
3 days prior to surgery
genetic differences
b.
48 hours before
c.
The genetic mutation induced by the drug
c.
Just before surgery
220.The precursor amino acid in formation of urea is
d.
One week before surgery
a.
Aspartic acid
210. The surgical division of the lobes of the liver is by
b.
Arginine
c.
Glutamate
d.
Ornithine
221. Septic ulcer has which type of edge
a.
Pearly
b.
Everted
c.
Sloping edge
d.
Undermined
222. All of the following hormones increase following
ovulation except
a.
Estradiol
b.
Estriol
c.
Progesterone
d.
Inhibin
223. Inferior rib notching is seen in all of the following
except
a.
Marfans syndrome
b.
Neurofibromatosis
c.
Blaulok Tausig shunt
d.
Coarctation of aorta
224. All of the following cause increase in acid secretion
except
a.
Prostaglandins
b.
Acetyl choline
c.
Histamine
d.
Gastrin
225. In lesion of ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus there
will be
a.
Decreased thirst
b.
Hypersomnia
c.
Hyperphagia
d.
Anorexia
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This post was last modified on 31 July 2021