Download RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery) 2nd Year (Second Year) 2024 May 1026 Pathology Paper I Rs 4 Previous Question Paper
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase ? II (CBME) Degree Examination - 28-May-2024
Time: Three Hours
Max. Marks: 100 Marks
PATHOLOGY ? PAPER I (RS-4)
Q.P. CODE: 1026
(QP contains two pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS
2 x 10 = 20 Marks
1.
40 year old farmer admitted to the hospital with high fever. He gives history of an injury
to his left leg resulting in an ulcer 15 days ago. On examination his pulse is 110/min,
blood pressure is 70/50 mmHg
a) What is your diagnosis?
b) Describe the stages of this condition
c) Discuss the pathophysiology of the above condition
2.
3 years old female child admitted to paediatric ward with long history of pallor and passing
high coloured urine. There is a history of consanguineous marriage among parents. On
examination child has pallor, stunted growth, icterus and enlarged spleen.
a) What is your diagnosis?
b) Describe the molecular pathogenesis of this condition
c) Discuss the lab diagnosis of the above condition
SHORT ESSAYS
8 x 5 = 40 Marks
3. 1. Pathologic calcification
4. 2. Arachidonic acid metabolites
5. 3. Lepromatous leprosy
6.
Type I hypersensitivity
7.
Mechanism of metastasis
8.
Chronic myeloid leukemia
9.
Von Willebrand's disease
10. Discuss phagocytosis
SHORT ANSWERS
10 x 3 = 30 Marks
11. Name three endogenous pigments
12. Fate of primary tuberculosis
13. Advantages of FNAC
14. Fate of thrombus
15. Tumor markers
16. Rickets
17. CSF findings in pyogenic meningitis
18. Stages of ESR
19. Coomb's test
20. Systemic causes for delayed wound healing
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QP CODE : 1026
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
Multiple Choice Questions
10 x 1 = 10 Marks
21 i)
All of the following are special stains for fat EXCEPT
A. Sudan dyes
B. PAS
C. Osmic acid
D. Oi
l Red O
21 ii
)
30 year old male on pure vegetarian diet presents with listlessness, tingling and
numbness in his limbs. On lab evaluation his bone marrow shows presence of
megaloblasts. Megaloblasts can be seen in
A. Iron deficiency anaemia
B. Haemolytic anaemia
C. Vit B12 deficiency anemia
D. Hereditary Spherocytosis
21 ii
i)
The DNA Oncogenic virus implicated in cervical carcinogenesis is
A. Human papilloma virus
B. Herpes virus
C. POX virus
D. Hepatiti
s B virus
21 iv)
Which of the following disease is X linked recessive inheritance
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Adult polycystic kidney
C. Haemophilia
D. Hereditary Spherocytosis
21 v) Which of the following is a tumor suppressor genes
A. RB
B. PDGF
C. RAS
D. EG
F
22 i)
Delayed type of hypersensitivity resulting in the formation of a granuloma is typically
seen in
A. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
B. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
C. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
22 ii)
Which of the following antibodies is likely to identified on laboratory testing in a patient
with systemic lupus erythematosis
A. Anti DS DNA
B. SS-A
C. SS-B
D. Jo-1
22 iii)
In cases of renal failure on long term hemodialysis which of following type of amyloid is
seen
A. Amyloid light chain (AL)
B. Amyloid associated protein (AA)
C. Amyloid beta 2 microglobulin (Abets2m)
D. Be
ta amyloid protein (A beta)
22 iv)
ESR is raised markedly in
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Malaria
C. Acute myeloblastic leukemia
D. Haemophilia
22 v)
Type of antibodies usually seen in chronic ITP are
A. Ig A
B. Ig M
C. Ig E
D. Ig
G
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This post was last modified on 02 December 2024