Download RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery) 4th Year (Third Year Part II) 2024 March 1039 Surgery Paper I Rs 4 Previous Question Paper
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase ? III (PART II) (CBME) Degree Examination - 01-Mar-2024
Time: Three Hours
Max. Marks: 100
SURGERY - PAPER ? I (RS-4)
QP CODE: 1039
(QP Contains Two Pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS
2 x 10 = 20 Marks
1.
45 year old lady presents with a painless lump of 2x2 cm size to start within the right
breast and has doubled the size in 6 months
a) What other history is needed?
b) What is your differential diagnosis?
c) How do you investigate?
d) Add a note on management of early breast carcinoma
2.
40 year old lady presents with swelling in the front of the neck of 10 years duration,
gradually increasing in size
a) List the differential diagnosis
b) Symptoms of hyperthyroidism
c) Complications of multinodular goitre
d) Investigations for multinodular goitre
SHORT ESSAYS
8 x 5 = 40 Marks
3.
Enumerate types of shock and principles of resuscitation
4.
Advantages and disadvantages of minimally invasive surgery
5.
Enumerate clinical features and write a note on management of parathyroid adenoma
6.
Enumerate clinical features and write a note on management of tension pneumothorax
7.
Principles of laparoscopy
8.
Clinical features and management of Pleomorphic adenoma
9.
Investigations of a surgical patient
10. Complications of blood transfusion
SHORT ANSWERS
10 x 3 = 30 Marks
11. Factors affecting wound healing
12. Clinical manifestation of Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1
13. Glasgow coma scale in head injuries
14. Principles of organ transplantation
15. Ethics in general surgery
16. Indications for daycare surgery
17. Enumerate clinical features of cystic hygroma
18. How do you arrive at a diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma of skin?
19. Immunological basis of transplantation
20. Parkland formula for burns
Page 1 of 2
QP CODE : 1039
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
Multi
ple Choice Questions
10 x 1 = 10 Marks
21 i) Pain caused by irritation of nerves
A. Psychogenic pain
B. Nociceptive pain
C. Neuropathic pain
D. Inflammatory pain
21 ii
) The following may be associated with Human Immunodeficiency Virus(HIV) EXCEPT
A. Pneumocystitis Carinii Pneumionia
B. Kaposi's Sarcoma
C. Drug treatment is most effective in late phase
D. Drug treatment is most effective in early phase
21 ii
i) Branchial cyst , following is TRUE
A. Sequestration dermoid
B. Presents at the upper end of neck
C. Seen at lower end of the neck
D. Develops from third branchial cleft
21 iv)
Gas Gangrene, following is true EXCEPT
A. Caused by Clostridium tetani
B. Occurs in immunocompromised patients
C. Antibiotic prophylaxis is necessary
D. Gas in soft tissue
21 v)
Mondor's disease is
A. Infection of scalp
B. Spontaneous thrombophlebitis of veins of leg
C. Spontaneous thrombophlebitis of veins of breast
D. Infection of the cheek
22 i) Metabolic response to trauma includes all EXCEPT
A. Increased energy requirement
B. Decreased energy requirement
C. Increased nitrogen requirement
D. Increased gluconeogenesis
22
ii) Complication of blood transfusion includes all EXCEPT
A. Febrile reaction
B. Allergic reaction
C. AIDS
D. Leukemia
22 iii) Cleft palate occurs due to
A. Abnormal development of median nasal process
B. Abnormal development of maxillary process
C. Failure of fusion of palatine shelves
D. Failure of fusion of nasal bones
22 iv)
Preoperative plan for better surgical outcome includes all EXCEPT
A. Optimize patient condition
B. Informed consent
C. Document relevant information
D. No need to correct anaemia
22 v)
Postoperative complications include all EXCEPT
A. Hypotension
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C. Pneumonia
D. Renal failure
*****
Page 2 of 2
This post was last modified on 02 December 2024