Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) TMU (Teerthanker Mahaveer University) Final Year (4th Year) 2015 MBBS401A General Medicine I Previous Question Paper
MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination
2014-15
Course Code: MBS401 Paper ID: 0314101
General Medicine - I
Time: 2 Hours 30 Minutes
Max Marks: 45
Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support
your answer.
Part `B'
1.
Discuss Aetiopathogenesis, clinical features and
management of Megalo blastic Anemia. (2+2+4)
2.
Describe the Aetiopathogenesis, clinical features and
management of Acute Rheumatic fever. (2+2+4)
3.
Write short notes on: (3x3=9)
a)
Ulcerative Colitis
b)
Complications of cirrhosis liver
c)
Hodgkin's lymphoma
Part `C'
1.
Write Aetio pathogenesis, clinical features, complications
and management of type 2nd Diabetes mellitus in 50 year
old Obese male. (1+2+2+3)
2.
Write short notes on: (3x4=12)
a)
Cerebral Malaria
b)
Post Exposure Prophylaxis in Rabies
c)
Chicken Pox
d)
Clubbing
MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2014-15
Roll No.
Student's Name
Student's Signature
Invigilator's Signature
Course Code: MBS401
Paper ID: 0314101
General Medicine - I
Part `A'
Time: 30 Minutes
Max Marks: 15
Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 30 Minutes.
2. Please tick () correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.
3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.
Q.1
Risk factors of angina includes all except:
b)
Overactive thyroid is in nervous patients
a)
HTN
only
b)
Smoking
c)
Adenoma of pituitary is there
c)
Sedentary lifestyle
d)
CHF can occur
d)
Alcoholism
Q.11
Addisonian disease is associated with:
Q.2
Bradycardia is seen in:
a)
Low blood pressure and oral pigmentation
a)
Myxoedema
b)
Oral sores
b)
Obstructive jaundice
c)
Thyrotoxicosis
c)
Head injuries
d)
Keratosis
d)
All of the above
Q.12
Renal osteodystrophy differs from nutritional and
Q.3
Giant `a' wave in JVP are seen in:
metabolic rickets due to the presence of:
a)
Complete heart block
a)
Hyperphosphalaemia
b)
Tricuspid stenosis
b)
Hypercalcaemia
c)
Pulmonary stenosis
c)
Hypophosphataemia
d)
Pulmonary regragitation
d)
None of the above
Q.4
The clinical features of SABE (Subacute Bacterial
Endocarditis) include all except :
P.T.O.
a)
Microscopic haematuria
Q.13
The insulin indicated in diabetic ketoacidosis is:
b)
Splenomegaly
a)
Lento insulin s.c.
c)
Early finger clubbing
b)
Soluble insulin s.c.
d)
Fever
c)
Protamin zinc insulin l.m
d)
Soluble insulin i.v. infusion
Q.5
Prophylactic antibiotic coverage before dental
extraction is indicated for all the following except:
Q.14
A diabetic patient in waiting room develops
a)
Kidney damage on haemodialysis
giddiness, sweating and confusion. He is suffering
b)
Prosthetic aortic valve
from:
c)
Rheumatic heart disease
a)
Hypertension
d)
Coronary artery bypass
b)
Ketoacidosis
c)
Hypoglycaemia
Q.6
Organism may play aetiological role in peptic
d)
Non-ketoacidosis
ulcer is:
a)
E, coli
Q.15
Sign of hypoglycemia include the following
b)
Helicobacter pylori
except:
c)
Giardia
a)
Sweating
d)
All
b)
Mental confusion
Q.7
Commonest cause of death in peptic ulcer patients
c)
Extensor plantar
is
d)
Fall of blood pressure
a)
Perforation
Q.16
Congenital rubella syndrome may cause all the
b)
Haemorrhage
following except:
c)
Pyloric stenosis
a)
Patent ductus artriosus
d)
Malignancy
b)
Spontaneous abortion
c)
Sensory nerve deafness
Q.8
Piecemeal necrosis is seen in:
d)
None of the above
a)
Chronic active hepatitis
b)
Indian childhood cirrhosis
Q.17
Class 2 of HIV disease describes:
c)
Primary billary cirrhosis
a)
Acute infections
d)
Alcoholic hepatitis
b)
Asymptomatic infections
c)
Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy
Q.9
Atrial fibrillation is common in:
d)
All of the above
a)
Adrenogenital syndrome
b)
Addison's disease
Q.18
In considering the serological tests for detection
c) Hyperthyroidism
of HIV infection, an early positive ELISA is due
d)
Von Willebrand's disease
to:
a)
p24 antibody
Q.10
In graves disease:
b)
gp 120 antibody
a)
Exophtolmos is due to proliferation of
c)
gp 120 antigen
tissue behind the eye ball
d)
p24 antigen
a)
Sodium chloride
Q.19
Minimum period required for postexposure
b)
Calcium lactate
chemoprophylaxis for HIV:
c)
Bicarbonate
a)
4 weeks
b)
12 weeks
d)
Glucose
c)
6 weeks
d)
8 weeks
Q.29
The barr body represents genetically:
Q.20
A blood donor is not considered for safe
a)
Active X chromosome
transfusion, if he has:
b)
Inactive X chromosome
a)
Anti-HBsAg+ve
c)
Active Y chromosome
b)
Anti-HbsAg and HBcAg+ve
d)
Any Y chromosome
c)
HBsAg+ve and IgM ant-HBc+ve
d)
Anti-HBc + ve
Q.30
In rheumatoid arthritis there is inflammation of:
a)
Cartilage
Q.21
Best means of giving hepatitis B vaccine is:
b)
Synovial imembrane
a)
Subcutaneous
c)
Sclerosis of joints
b)
Intradermal
d)
Articulate bone
c)
Intramuscular deltoid
d)
Intramuscular gluteal
Q.22
Chickenpox rash:
a)
Appears on the second day of the illness
b)
Appears on the truck first
c)
Lesions at all stages of development seen
d)
All the above
Q.23
Which of the following is the most important drug
in the treatment of anaphylactic shock:
a)
Corticosteroids
b)
Antihistamines
c)
Adrenaline
d)
Sodium bicarbonate
Q.24
Intestinal
parasitic
disease
in
immunocompromised patient is:
a)
Strongyloides
b)
Ascaris
c)
Hookworm
d)
Trichuris
Q.25
The longest incubation period is seen in which
types of malaria:
a)
P. vivax
b)
P. malaria
c)
P. ovale
d)
P. falciparum
Q.26
Black urine is seen in:
a)
Billirubinuria
b)
Blackwater fever
c)
Alkaptonuria
d)
All
Q.27
Sabre tibia is seen in:
a)
Gonorrhoea
b)
Rabies
c)
Tetanus
d)
Diphtheria
Q.28
Oral rehydration fluid does not contain:
This post was last modified on 17 February 2022