Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) TMU (Teerthanker Mahaveer University) Final Year (4th Year) 2016 MBBS404A General Surgery I Previous Question Paper
MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination
2015-16
Course Code: MBS404 Paper ID: 0314106
General Surgery - I
Time: 2 Hours 30 Minutes
Max Marks: 45
Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support
your answer.
Part `B'
1.
Define and classify goiter. Describe management of
solitary thyroid nodule. (8)
2.
Classify Haemorrhage. Describe its pathophysiology and
management. (8)
3.
Write short note on: (3x3=9)
a)
Cystic Hygroma
b)
Venous ulcer
c)
Systemic inflammatory Response syndrome
Part `C'
1.
Write short notes on the following: (3x4=12)
a)
Ulnar nerve injury at elbow: clinical features and diagnostic
tests
b)
Osteoblastoma
c)
Chronic osteomyelitis
d)
Congenital talipes equinovarus [CTEV]: describe deformity
and conservative management techniques
2.
Describe the clinical features, management and
complications of supracondylar fracture humerus in
children. (2+2+4)
MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2015-16
Roll No.
Student's Name
Student's Signature
Invigilator's Signature
Course Code: MBS404
Paper ID: 0314106
General Surgery - I
Part `A'
Time: 30 Minutes
Max Marks: 15
Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 30 Minutes.
2. Please tick () correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.
3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.
Q.1
A hamartoma is:
d)
Venacaval thrombosis
a)
Any collection of blood clot
b)
A haemorrhagic cyst of the forearm
Q.11
A greenish discharge from an ulcer indicates
c)
A developmental malformation
infection with:
d)
A hepatoma
a)
streptococcus viridians
b)
staphylococcus aureus
c)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q.2
Ringer lactate solution contains all of the
d)
Pseudomonas pyocyaneus
following except:
a)
Sodium
b)
Potassium
Q.12
Cell associated with immune response include all
c)
Chloride
d)
Albumin
except:
Q.3
Sodium depletion causes all of the following
a)
T lymphocytes b) B lymphocytes
except:
c)
Reed Sternberg cell d) Reticulocytes
a)
Results in the urine containing little or no
Q.13
In Tetanus infection:
chloride
a)
The toxin travels along nerves to the
b)
Can follow prolonged gastric aspiration
central nervous system
combined with unlimited intake of water
b)
Active immunity is conferred by giving
c)
Causes subcutaneous tissues to feel lax
human anti- tetanus globulin
d)
Occurs during the first 24 hours after
c)
A child under one year age has an inborn
operation
immunity to the disease
Q.4
The following statement is true about Keloid:
d)
Causative organism is clostridium
a)
More common in whites than blacks
difficile
b)
Local recurrence is common after
excision
P.T.O.
c)
Malignant change occurs
Q.14
In carcinoma of breast:
d)
Does not extend into normal skin
a)
Medullary carcinoma feels stony hard
b)
The atropic scirrhous type occurs in
Q.5
A decubitus ulcer is:
younger women
a)
Venous ulcer
c)
Peau d'orange is a late sign of carcinoma
b)
An ulcer in the region of face
d)
Malignant cells does not transgress the
c)
A pressure sore
internal elastic lamina of a duct
d)
An ulcer of tongue
Q.15
The best site for an intramuscular injection is the:
Q.6
Most important HLA for organ transplant-ation
a)
Forearm
and tissue typing is:
b)
Inner lower quadrant of the buttock.
a)
HLA- A
b)
HLA- B
c)
Outer upper quadrant of the buttock
c)
HLA- C
d)
HLA- D
d)
Abdomen
Q.7
A clean incised wound heals by:
Q.16
Toe extension in foot is mainly function of ?
a)
Excessive scarring
nerve root:
b)
Primary intention
a)
L3
b)
L4
c)
Secondary intention
c)
L5
d)
S1
d)
None of the above
Q.8
A portwine stain (naevus flammeus) is a: a)
Q.17
Positron emission tomography uses:
Permalignant lesion of skin
a)
Glucose
b)
Iron
c)
Calcium
d)
Technicium 99
b)
Type of brusing of skin
c)
Type of haemangioma
Q.18
Which of the following statement is not true about
d)
Type of melanoma
fracture of patella:
a)
Even undisplaced fractures require
Q.9
A superficial partial thickness burn of skin:
patellectomy
a)
is insensitive
b)
Quadriceps expansion may be intact in
b)
will separate as slough in 2-3 weeks
direct injury
c) requires a free flap graft
c)
Quadriceps expansion is ruptured when
d)
Is sensitive
gap is palpable between patellar
Q.10
A white leg is due to:
fragments
a)
Femoral vein thrombosis
d)
Knee cannot be actively extend if
b)
Lymphatic obstruction
quadriceps expansion is ruptured
c)
Femoral vein thrombosis and lymphatic
obstruction
Q.19
Stability of hip joint depends mainly on:
a)
Bony configuration
b)
Ischio-femoral ligament
b)
Muscles
c)
Pubo-femoral ligament
c)
Ligaments
d)
Transverse acetabular ligament
d)
Tendons and Menisci
Q.28
First treatment priority in patient with multiple
Q.20
For a distended knee joint following position is
injuries is:
most comfortable:
a)
Airway maintenance
a)
Full extension b)
30? flexion
b)
Bleeding control
c)
60? flexion d)
90? flexion
c)
Circulatory volume restoration
d)
Splinting of fractures
Q.21
Preferable treatment for six weeks old
intrascapular fracture of femoral neck in a thirty
Q.29
Commonest cause of failure of internal fixation is:
five year old man:
a)
Infection
a)
Hemi replacement arthroplasty
b)
Corrosion
b)
Crif with or without valgus Osteotomy
c)
Metal reaction
c)
Smith Peterson Nailing
d)
Stress fracture of implant
d)
Moore's pin fixation
Q.30
Bone graft works by providing:
Q.22
Regarding fracture of clavicle which of the
a)
Bone induction factor
following statement is incorrect:
b)
Osteogenic cells
a)
Fracture is commonest in medial third
c)
Living osteoblasts
b)
Non union is rare.
d)
Mineral scaffold for vascular proliferation
c)
Most cases can be treated conservatively
d)
Fracture usually occurs due to indirect
injury
Q.23
Malunited Colles' fracture produces which of the
following deformity:
a)
Dinner fork deformity
b)
Madelung deformity
c)
Swan neck deformity
d)
Boutonniere deformity
Q.24
A patient develops compartment syndrome
(swelling, pain and numbness) following
manipulation and plaster for fracture of both
bones of leg. What is the best treatment:
a)
Split the plaster
b)
Elevate the leg
c)
Infusion of low molecular weight dextran
d)
Do operative decompression of facial
compartment
Q.25
Bumper fracture is the name given to:
a)
Fracture of lateral tibial condyle
b)
Fracture of patella
c)
Fracture of lateral femoral condyle
d)
Fracture of tibial spine
Q.26
What is the most serious disadvantage of external
fixator:
a)
Pin tract infection
b)
Loosening of pins
c)
Fracture cannot be compressed
d)
Another fracture can occur through pin
tract
Q.27
Which is the strongest ligament:
a)
Ilio-femoral ligament
This post was last modified on 17 February 2022