Download MBBS TMU Final Year 2016 MBBS404A General Surgery I Question Paper

Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) TMU (Teerthanker Mahaveer University) Final Year (4th Year) 2016 MBBS404A General Surgery I Previous Question Paper


MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination

2015-16

Course Code: MBS404 Paper ID: 0314106

General Surgery - I

Time: 2 Hours 30 Minutes

Max Marks: 45

Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support

your answer.

Part `B'

1.

Define and classify goiter. Describe management of
solitary thyroid nodule. (8)

2.

Classify Haemorrhage. Describe its pathophysiology and
management. (8)

3.

Write short note on: (3x3=9)

a)

Cystic Hygroma

b)

Venous ulcer

c)

Systemic inflammatory Response syndrome

Part `C'

1.

Write short notes on the following: (3x4=12)

a)

Ulnar nerve injury at elbow: clinical features and diagnostic
tests

b)

Osteoblastoma

c)

Chronic osteomyelitis

d)

Congenital talipes equinovarus [CTEV]: describe deformity
and conservative management techniques

2.

Describe the clinical features, management and
complications of supracondylar fracture humerus in
children. (2+2+4)

MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2015-16

Roll No.

Student's Name



Student's Signature

Invigilator's Signature



Course Code: MBS404

Paper ID: 0314106

General Surgery - I

Part `A'



Time: 30 Minutes

Max Marks: 15

Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 30 Minutes.
2. Please tick () correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.
3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.
Q.1

A hamartoma is:

d)

Venacaval thrombosis

a)

Any collection of blood clot



b)

A haemorrhagic cyst of the forearm

Q.11

A greenish discharge from an ulcer indicates

c)

A developmental malformation

infection with:

d)

A hepatoma

a)

streptococcus viridians

b)

staphylococcus aureus



c)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Q.2

Ringer lactate solution contains all of the

d)

Pseudomonas pyocyaneus

following except:
a)

Sodium

b)

Potassium

Q.12

Cell associated with immune response include all

c)

Chloride

d)

Albumin

except:

Q.3

Sodium depletion causes all of the following

a)

T lymphocytes b) B lymphocytes

except:

c)

Reed Sternberg cell d) Reticulocytes

a)

Results in the urine containing little or no

Q.13

In Tetanus infection:

chloride

a)

The toxin travels along nerves to the

b)

Can follow prolonged gastric aspiration

central nervous system

combined with unlimited intake of water

b)

Active immunity is conferred by giving

c)

Causes subcutaneous tissues to feel lax

human anti- tetanus globulin

d)

Occurs during the first 24 hours after

c)

A child under one year age has an inborn

operation

immunity to the disease

Q.4

The following statement is true about Keloid:

d)

Causative organism is clostridium

a)

More common in whites than blacks

difficile



b)

Local recurrence is common after
excision

P.T.O.

c)

Malignant change occurs

Q.14

In carcinoma of breast:

d)

Does not extend into normal skin

a)

Medullary carcinoma feels stony hard

b)

The atropic scirrhous type occurs in

Q.5

A decubitus ulcer is:

younger women

a)

Venous ulcer

c)

Peau d'orange is a late sign of carcinoma

b)

An ulcer in the region of face

d)

Malignant cells does not transgress the

c)

A pressure sore

internal elastic lamina of a duct

d)

An ulcer of tongue

Q.15

The best site for an intramuscular injection is the:

Q.6

Most important HLA for organ transplant-ation

a)

Forearm

and tissue typing is:

b)

Inner lower quadrant of the buttock.

a)

HLA- A

b)

HLA- B

c)

Outer upper quadrant of the buttock

c)

HLA- C

d)

HLA- D

d)

Abdomen

Q.7

A clean incised wound heals by:

Q.16

Toe extension in foot is mainly function of ?

a)

Excessive scarring

nerve root:

b)

Primary intention

a)

L3

b)

L4

c)

Secondary intention

c)

L5

d)

S1



d)

None of the above

Q.8

A portwine stain (naevus flammeus) is a: a)

Q.17

Positron emission tomography uses:

Permalignant lesion of skin

a)

Glucose

b)

Iron

c)

Calcium

d)

Technicium 99

b)

Type of brusing of skin

c)

Type of haemangioma

Q.18

Which of the following statement is not true about

d)

Type of melanoma

fracture of patella:
a)

Even undisplaced fractures require

Q.9

A superficial partial thickness burn of skin:

patellectomy

a)

is insensitive

b)

Quadriceps expansion may be intact in

b)

will separate as slough in 2-3 weeks

direct injury

c) requires a free flap graft

c)

Quadriceps expansion is ruptured when

d)

Is sensitive

gap is palpable between patellar

Q.10

A white leg is due to:

fragments

a)

Femoral vein thrombosis

d)

Knee cannot be actively extend if

b)

Lymphatic obstruction

quadriceps expansion is ruptured

c)

Femoral vein thrombosis and lymphatic
obstruction

Q.19

Stability of hip joint depends mainly on:

a)

Bony configuration

b)

Ischio-femoral ligament

b)

Muscles

c)

Pubo-femoral ligament

c)

Ligaments

d)

Transverse acetabular ligament

d)

Tendons and Menisci

Q.28

First treatment priority in patient with multiple

Q.20

For a distended knee joint following position is

injuries is:

most comfortable:

a)

Airway maintenance

a)

Full extension b)

30? flexion

b)

Bleeding control

c)

60? flexion d)

90? flexion

c)

Circulatory volume restoration

d)

Splinting of fractures

Q.21

Preferable treatment for six weeks old
intrascapular fracture of femoral neck in a thirty

Q.29

Commonest cause of failure of internal fixation is:

five year old man:

a)

Infection

a)

Hemi replacement arthroplasty

b)

Corrosion

b)

Crif with or without valgus Osteotomy

c)

Metal reaction

c)

Smith Peterson Nailing

d)

Stress fracture of implant

d)

Moore's pin fixation

Q.30

Bone graft works by providing:

Q.22

Regarding fracture of clavicle which of the

a)

Bone induction factor

following statement is incorrect:

b)

Osteogenic cells

a)

Fracture is commonest in medial third

c)

Living osteoblasts

b)

Non union is rare.

d)

Mineral scaffold for vascular proliferation

c)

Most cases can be treated conservatively

d)

Fracture usually occurs due to indirect
injury

Q.23

Malunited Colles' fracture produces which of the
following deformity:
a)

Dinner fork deformity

b)

Madelung deformity

c)

Swan neck deformity

d)

Boutonniere deformity


Q.24

A patient develops compartment syndrome
(swelling, pain and numbness) following
manipulation and plaster for fracture of both
bones of leg. What is the best treatment:
a)

Split the plaster

b)

Elevate the leg

c)

Infusion of low molecular weight dextran

d)

Do operative decompression of facial
compartment

Q.25

Bumper fracture is the name given to:
a)

Fracture of lateral tibial condyle

b)

Fracture of patella

c)

Fracture of lateral femoral condyle

d)

Fracture of tibial spine

Q.26

What is the most serious disadvantage of external
fixator:
a)

Pin tract infection

b)

Loosening of pins

c)

Fracture cannot be compressed

d)

Another fracture can occur through pin
tract

Q.27

Which is the strongest ligament:
a)

Ilio-femoral ligament

This post was last modified on 17 February 2022