Download MBBS TMU Final Year 2017 MBS404 0314106 General Surgery I Question Paper

Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) TMU (Teerthanker Mahaveer University) Final Year (4th Year) 2017 MBS404 0314106 General Surgery I Previous Question Paper


MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination

2016-17


Course Code: MBS404 Paper ID: 0314106


General Surgery - I


Time: 2 Hours 30 Minutes



Max Marks: 45


Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support


your answer.







Part `B'



1.

Classify ulcers of tongue. Describe management of
carcinoma tongue. (8)


2.

Describe the diagnosis, staging & management of
carcinoma of breast. (8)


3.

Write short note on: (3x3=9)

a) Glassgow coma score
b) MEN syndrome
c) Pleomorphicadenoma of salivary gand


Part `C'


1.

Write short notes on the following: (3x4=12)

a) Tennis elbow
b) Volkmann's ischemic contracture
c) Ulnar paradox
d) Osteoginic sarcoma

2.

Describe the clinical features and management of fracture
neck of femur. (8)

MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2016-17



Roll No.













Student's Name























Student's Signature













Invigilator's Signature










Course Code: MBS404







Paper ID: 0314106

General Surgery - I



Part `A'




Time: 30 Minutes

















Max Marks: 15


Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 30 Minutes.
2. Please tick () correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.
3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.

Q.1

Commonest site of basal cell carcinoma is:

Q.8

Grossly contaminated wound presenting after 12 hours



a)

Upper face

should be managed by:



b)

Lower face& neck



a)

Cleaning & primary repair



c)

Abdomen



d)

Lower limb

b)

Thorough cleaning, debridement of all dead



and devitalized tissue without primary repair

Q.2

Commonest

complication

associated

with

c)

Primary closure with a drain

immunosuppression is:

d)

Immediate skin grafting



a)

Graft rejection b)

Infection





c)

Anaphylaxis

d)

None

Q.9

Eye signs are more common in:



a)

Primary thyrotoxicosis

Q.3

Treatment of Parathyroid Hyperplasia is:

b)

Secondary thyrotoxicosis

a)

Removal of all four glands



c) Euthyroid goitre

b)

Removal of one enlarged gland

d)

None of the above

c)

I.V. Calcium



d)

Preserving 50mg of one gland only and

Q.10

A stove in chest is not:

removal of rest

a)

Caused by a direct injury





b)

Associated with a paradoxical movement

Q.4

Virchow's lymph node is located in:

c)

A burn from a heating appliance



a)

Axilla

d)

Ever reduced by positive pressure ventilation

b)

Left Supraclavicular region



c)

Inguinal region

Q.11

A breast lump is safely left alone after aspiration if:

d)

Popliteal region



a)

Cytology shows atypical cells







b)

It is solid and not cystic

Q.5

Characteristic Malignant cell in Hodgkins lymphoma



c)

There is blood staining of aspirate

is:

d)

It is a cyst which does not refill subsequently





a)

Histocytes



Q.12

Cleft lip and palate affects all of the following except:

b)

Lymphocytes



a)

Facial growth

c)

Reid Sternberg cell

b)

Vision of both eyes

d)

Reticular cell

c)

Dental development



d)

Speech and hearing

Q.6

Malignancy in a longstanding multinodular goitre is



most often:

Q.13

During Parotidectomy nerve at risk of injury is:



a)

Anaplastic Carcinoma

a)

IX th cranial nerve





b)

Follicular Carcinoma

b)

Xth cranial nerve



c)

Medullary Carcinoma

c)

VIth cranial nerve



d)

Papillary Carcinoma

d)

VII cranial nerve





Q.7

Most severe and aggressive form of Malignant

Q.14 Treatment of duct papilloma of breast is:

Melanoma is:

a)

Wait & watch



a)

Superficial spreading

b)

Subcutaneous mastectomy

b)

Acral Lentiginous

c)

Microdochectomy

c)

Lentigo maligna

d)

Modified radical mastectomy



d)

Nodular infiltrating





P.T.O.
Q.15 Neck abscesses commonly demand emergency

Q.23

Which of the following injury is called "Aviator's

treatment due to the:

fracture':

a)

Risk of airway obstruction

a)

Pott's fracture

b)

Resistant bacteria that are usually

b)

Fracture neck of metatarsal

involved.

c)

Subtalar dislocation

c)

Progressive

dysphagia

causing

d)

Fracture of neck of talus

dehydration



d)

Pain

Q.24

Best treatment for a sixty five year old patient



with four week old intracapsular femoral neck

Q.16

Which of the following bursa produces symptoms

fracture is:

in shoulder impingement syndrome:



a)

Internal fixation

a)

Subacromial bursa



b)

Internal fixation with muscle pedicle graft

b)

Subdeltoid bursa



c)

Mc Murray osteotomy

c)

Bursa in relation of subscapularis tendon

d)

Hemireplacement arthroplasty

d)

Bursa in relation to latissimus dorsi





Q.25

Which of the following fracture-eponym

Q.17

What is the commonest complication of

combinations is NOT correct:

supracondylar fracture of humerus:

a)

Tillaux fracture - avulsion fracture of tibia



a)

Malunion



at inferior tibiofibular joint

b)

Myositis ossificans

b)

Essex-Lopresti ? fractured radial head and



c)

Stiffness of elbow



dislocated distal radioulnar joint

d)

Volkmann's contracture

c)

Hume fracture - fractured distal radius



with dislocation of distal radioulnar joint

Q.18

A collar and cuff bandage will be most suitable

d)

Bennet fracture ? fracture dislocation at

treatment for which of the following injury:

the base of the 1st metacarpal

a)

Midshaft fracture of humerus



b)

Undisplaced fracture of neck of humerus

Q.26

Regarding Compartment Syndrome which bone

c)

Monteggia fracture

fracture is MOST commonly implicated:

d)

Dislocation of elbow



a)

Femur

b)

Radius



c)

Tibia

d)

Humerus

Q.19

Regarding fracture of clavicle which of the





following statement is incorrect:

Q.27

Which is NOT a principle of compound fracture



a)

Fracture is commonest in medial third

treatment:



b)

Non union is rare

a)

No tendon repair



c)

Most cases can be treated conservatively

b)

Aggressive Antibiotic cover

d)

Fracture is common in middle third

c)

Wound debridement





Q.20

A patient develops compartment syndrome

d)

Immediate Wound closure



(swelling, pain and numbness) following

Q.28

In transverse fracture of the patella, the treatment

manipulation and plaster for fracture of both

is:

bones of leg. What is the best treatment:



a)

Excision of small fragment

a)

Elevate the leg

b)

Wire fixation

b)

Infusion of low molecular weight dextran



c)

Plaster cylinder



c)

Elevate the leg after splitting the plaster

d)

Patellectomy

d)

Do operative decompression of facial



compartment

Q.29

Comonest type of dislocation of the hip is:





a)

Anterior

Q.21

MalunitedColles' fracture produces which of the



b)

Posterior

following deformity:



c)

Central



a)

Garden spade deformity



d)

Dislocation with fracture of the shaft



b)

Dinner fork deformity





c)

Madelung deformity

Q.30

Myositisossificans is commonly seen at which



d)

Swan neck deformity

joint:





a)

Hip

Q.22

In ankle sprain, the commonest ligament torn is:



b)

Knee

a)

Tibio-talar ligament

c)

Elbow

b)

Posterior talo-fibular ligament.

d)

Shoulder

c)

Calcaneo fibular ligament



d)

Anterior talo-fibular ligament



This post was last modified on 17 February 2022