Download MBBS TMU Final Year 2017 MBS404 0314107 General Surgery II Question Paper

Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) TMU (Teerthanker Mahaveer University) Final Year (4th Year) 2017 MBS404 0314107 General Surgery II Previous Question Paper


MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination

2016-17


Course Code: MBS404 Paper ID: 0314107


General Surgery - II


Time: 2 Hours 30 Minutes



Max Marks: 45


Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support


your answer.







Part `B'



1.

Describe etiology, clinical features and management of
acute pancreatitis. (8)


2.

Describe clinical features and management of common bile
duct stones. (8)


3.

Write short note on: (3x3=9)

a) Carcino-embryonic antigen
b) Oesophageal varices
c) Congenital megacolon


Part `C'


1.

Describe clinical features, investigations and management
of renal cell carcinoma. (8)


2.

Write short notes on the following: (3x4=12)

a) Hypospedias
b) full thickness skin graft
c) Epidural anaesthesia
d) Leukoplakia



MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2016-17



Roll No.















Student's Name







Student's Signature











Invigilator's Signature










Course Code: MBS404











Paper ID: 0314107

General Surgery - II



Part `A'




Time: 30 Minutes

















Max Marks: 15


Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 30 Minutes.
2. Please tick () correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.
3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.

Q.1

Resection of terminal ileum results in:

Q.8

Lumbar sympathectomy is indicated in:



a)

Vitamin B12 deficiency

a)

Intermittent claudication



b)

Iron deficiency

b)

TAO with skin changes



c)

Decreased incidence of gall stones



c)

Burger's desease

d)

Steatorrhoea



d)

Raynaud's desease





Q.2

Appendicular artery is a branch of:

Q.9

Rectal examination should not be done in:



a)

Ileo colic artery

a)

Anal fissure

b)

Right colic artery

b)

Fistula in ano



c)

Middle colic artery





c) Prolapsed piles with bleeding

d)

Post caecal artey

d)

Anal stenosis





Q.3

Best investigative modality for gall bladder is:

Q.10 Fournier's gangrene occurs in:

a)

OCG

a)

Toes

b)

Scrotum

b)

PTC

c)

Fingers

d)

Muscles

c)

Ultrasound





d)

Intravenous cholangiogram

Q.11 The following are the complications of ulcerative





colitis except:

Q.4

Commonest renal stone is:



a)

Peptic ulcerations



a)

Phosphate

b)

Oxalate



b)

Arthritis

c)

Uric acid

d)

Cysteine



c)

Sclerosing cholangitis







d)

Toxic megacolon

Q.5

The most important prognostic factor in cancer





breast is:

Q.12 Triad of Jaundice, chills & fever occurs in:



a)

Size of tumour



a)

CBD stones

b)

Skin involvement

b)

Post cholecystectomy

c)

Involvement of muscle

c)

Acute hepatitis



d)

Axillary lymph nodes involvement

d)

Pancreatitis





Q.6

Typhoid perforation occurs during:

Q.13 Brilliantly transilluminant tumour in the neck may

a)

1st week

b)

2nd week

be:



c)

3rd week

d)

4th week

a)

Branchial cyst





b)

Thyroglossal cyst



Q.7

In seminoma testis treatment is:

c)

Sternomastoid tumour



a)

Surgery & radiotherapy



d)

Cystic hygroma

b)

Radiotherapy only





c)

Chemotherapy





d)

Stilbesterol

P.T.O.
Q.14 The purpose of cleft lip surgery is:

Q.23 Skin graft for facial wound is taken from:



a)

Cosmetic

a)

Medial aspect of thigh



b)

Speech

b)

Cubital fossa



c)

Sucking

c)

Groin



d)

Hearing

d)

Postauricular region





Q.15 The commonest parotid tumour is:

Q.24 In pneumothorax due to blunt injury, treatment of

a)

Pleomorphic adenoma

choice is:

b)

Warthin's tumour



a)

Observation

c)

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

b)

Pneumonectomy

d)

Secondaries



c)

Thoracotomy



d)

Intercostal drainage

Q.16 Exomphalos is a disease involving:



a)

Umblicus

Q.25 Strangulation is most common with which hernia:

b)

Cervix



a)

Femoral

c)

Abdominal wall



b)

Inguinal

d)

Urinary bladder



c)

Obturator





d)

Epigastric

Q.17 Transpyloric plane passes through:





a)

T12-L1

Q.26 Winging of scapula is due to paralysis of:



b)

L5-S1



a)

Latissmus dorsi



c)

T10

b)

pectoralis major



d)

L1-L2

c)

pectoralis minor



d)

Serratus anterior

Q.18 The following is the commonest site for venous





ulcer:

Q.27 Secondaries in the neck with no obvious primary

a)

Instep of foot

malignancy is most often due to:

b)

Lower 1/3rd of leg & ankle

a)

Stomach

c)

Lower 2/3rd of leg

b)

Ca-Larynx



d)

Middle 1/3rd of leg

c)

Ca-Nasopharynx



d)

Ca- Thyroid

Q.19 Commonest cause of solitary thyroid nodule:





a)

Adenomatous goitre

Q.28 The treatment of choice for inguinal hernia in



b)

Papillary carcinoma

infant is:



c)

Follicular carcinoma



a)

Herniotomy

d)

Follicular adenoma

b)

herniorraphy







c)

Truss

Q.20 In India splenectomy is most commonly

d)

Hernioplasty

performed for:



a)

Hydatid disease



Q.29 Secondary deposits from carcinoma prostate is

b)

Trauma

commonest in:



c)

Portal hypertention.





a)

Bone

d)

Splenic abscess



b)

Kidney





c))

Liver

Q.21 Most common site for intra abdominal abscess



d)

Brain

following laparotomy:



a)

Sub hepatic

Q.30 Margins of squamous cell carcinoma are:

b)

Sub phrenic

a)

Inverted

c)

Pelvic

b)

Everted

d)

Paracolic

c)

Rolled



d)

Undermined

Q.22 In radical mastectomy which is spared:



a)

Pectoralis minor

b)

Pectoralis major

c)

Axillary lymph nodes

d)

Supraclavicular lymph nodes




This post was last modified on 17 February 2022