Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) TMU (Teerthanker Mahaveer University) Final Year (4th Year) 2018 MBS401 General Medicine II Previous Question Paper
MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination
2017-18
Course Code: MBS401 Paper ID: 0314103
General Medicine - II
Time: 2 Hours 30 Minutes
Max Marks: 45
Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support
your answer.
Part `B'
1.
A patient present with weakness of all limbs of sudden
onset discuss the different diagnosis and management of
one of them. (8)
2.
Write the etiology pathology clinical feature and
management of Rheumatoid Arthritis (8)
3.
Write short notes on: (3x3=9)
a)
Scabies
b)
Antideppresant Drugs
c)
Alopecia Aerata
Part `C'
1.
Write etiology pathology clinical features & management
of community acquired Pneumonia. (8)
2.
Write short notes on: (3x4=12)
a)
Etiology of Nephrotic Syndrome
b)
Pulmonary function test
c)
Write diet of 1500 Caloris for a Diabetic Patient
d)
Antitubercular Drugs
MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2017-18
Roll No.
Student's Name
Student's Signature
Invigilator's Signature
Course Code: MBS401
Paper ID: 0314103
General Medicine - II
Part `A'
Time: 30 Minutes
Max Marks: 15
Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 30 Minutes.
2. Please tick () correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.
3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.
Q.1
True about pulmonary infarct is:
c)
Bronchial asthma
a)
Occurs in otherwise normal lungs
d)
Pneumonia
b)
Occurs commonly with fat embolism
c)
Mostly red infarct with haemorrhagic
Q.11
Flea bitten kidney is seen in all of following
exudate
except:
d)
Haemorrhagic effusion may occur
a)
Malignant hypertension
e)
Often from deep veins of legs or pelvis
b)
Diabetes
c)
Infective endocarditis
Q.2
Sputum from an asthma patient may be:
d)
PAN
a)
Numerous eosinophils
b)
Curschmann's spiral
Q.12
The protein in glomerular basement membrane
c)
Charot-Leyden crystals
responsible for charge depended filtration is:
d)
All of the above
a)
Albumin
b)
Collagen type IV
Q.3
The most common site for metastasis of small cell
c)
Proteoglycan
carcinoma of lungs is:
d)
Fibronectin
a)
Brain
b)
Adrenal
c)
Liver
d)
Bones
P.T.O.
Q.13
Thickening of basement membrane of glomeruli
Q.4
Characteristic features of viral pneumonia is:
is seen in:
a)
Interstitial mononuclear infiltaction
a)
IgA nephropathy
b)
Intra ?alveolar proteinaceous exudates
b)
Membranoproliferative
c)
Hyaline membrane lining alveoli
glomerulonephrities
d)
Fibrotic septa
c)
Lipoid nephrosis
d)
Post streptococcal glomerulonephrities
Q.5
Emphysema pathologically involves beyond the:
a)
Bronchi
Q.14
Interstitial nephritis is caused by:
b)
Terminal bronchiole
a)
Methicillin
c)
Respiratory bronchiole
b)
Ampicillin
d)
Alveolar Sac
c)
Cloxacillin
d)
Pencicilli
Q.6
Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with non gaseous
granuloma is suggestive of:
Q.15
Uremia occurs when total GFR is reduced by:
a)
Hodgkin's
b)
Tuberculosis
a)
25%
b)
50%.
c)
Sarcoidosis
d)
Ca lung
c)
60%
d)
80%
Q.7
Complication of Bronchiectasis are all except:
Q.16
All of the following may be associated with
a)
Septicemia
massive proteinuria except:
b)
Carcinoma bronchus
a)
Amyloidsis
c)
Lung abscess
b)
Renal vein thrombosis
d)
Cerebral abscess
c)
Polycystic kidney
d)
Polyarteritis nodosa
Q.8
In sarcoidosis the following is true:
a)
Epitheloid cells showing caseation
Q.17
Wilm's tumour is associated with all of the
b)
Epitheloid cells ? with no caseation
following except:
c)
Histolytic cell ? with caseation
a)
Hemihypertrophy
d)
Well differenciated histiocytic cell
b)
Arthogyphosis multiplex congenital
c)
Male pseudohermophrodism
Q.9
Chronic smoker develops cough, hemoptysis.
d)
Aniridia
Doctor tells him that he is having most malignant
type of bronchogenic carcinoma. The type is:
Q.18
Disease that recurs after transplantation of kidney
a)
Squamous
is:
b)
Small cell
a)
DM
c) Large cell
b)
MPGN
d)
Adenomatous
c)
SLE
Q.10
Reid's index is used in diagnosis of:
d)
Mesangial
a)
Chronic bronchitis
b)
Bronchiectasis
Q.19
True about membranous GN are following except:
a)
Thickening of B.M
b)
Deposition between endothelium amd
b)
Neurofibroma
B.M
c)
Ependymoma
c)
Most common cause of nephritic
d)
Astrocytoma
syndrome in adults
d)
Seen in SLE, tumors, drugs
Q.29
Febrile response in CNS is mediated by:
Q.20
Glomeulonephritis associated with AIDS is:
a)
IL-1
a)
Focal segment GN
b)
IL-6
b)
PSGM
c)
Interferon
c)
MPGN
d)
TNF
d)
Membranous GN
Q.30
Brain infarct is seen in:
Q.21
Common causes of intra cerebral bleed:
a)
T.B
a)
Berry aneurysms
b) Cryptococcosi
b)
Hypertension
c)
Aspergillosis
c)
Diabetes
d) Toxoplasmosis
d)
Thrombocytopenia
Q.22
Following are CHF findings in aseptic meningitis
except:
a)
Increased proteins
b)
Increased sugar
c)
Neutrophilia
d)
Decreased chloride
Q.23
Sturge weber's syndrome is not associated with:
a)
Seizures
b)
Hemiatrophy of cerebral cortex
c)
Gyeifrom calcification in brain
d)
Empty sella
Q.24
Damage to nervous tissue is repaired by:
a)
Neuroglia
b)
Fibroblasts
c)
Axons
d)
Microglia
Q.25
C.S.F cell count in tubercular meningitis varies
between:
a)
0 to 99
b)
100 to 499
c)
500 to 999
d)
1000 to 5000
Q.26
Struge weber syndrome is associated with:
a)
Port wine stain
b)
Cavemous hemangioma
c)
Lymphangioma
d)
Hemangiosarcama
Q.27
Which is not a finding in viral encephalitis:
a)
Astrogial proliferation
b)
Perivascular mononuclear infiltrate
c)
Inclusions bodies intranucler and
intracytoplasmic
d)
None of the above
Q.28
Common spinal cord tumor with intradural but
extramedullary situation:
a)
Memingioma
This post was last modified on 17 February 2022