Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) TMU (Teerthanker Mahaveer University) Final Year (4th Year) 2018 MBS402 Paediatrics Previous Question Paper
MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination
2017-18
Course Code:MBS402
Paper ID:0314135
Paediatrics
Time: 2 Hours 10 Minutes
Max Marks: 30
Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support
your answer.
Part `B'
1.
Write the etiopathogenesis and classification of childhood
asthma. Discuss the management of acute severe asthma
and strategies for long term control. (7)
2.
Write the etiopathogenesis, staging and management of
tubercular meningitis. (7)
Part `C'
3. a)
Write the management of childhood nephrotic
syndrome. (4)
b)
Write the management of newborn born to HIV positive
mother to prevent mother to child transmission of HIV
infection. (4)
c)
Write the latest changes in polio vaccination strategies in
India. Compare oral and injectable polio vaccine. (4)
d)
Discuss the complementary feeding in a young infant from
6 months to 2 years age. (4)
MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2017-18
Roll No.
Student's Name
Student's Signature
Invigilator's Signature
Course Code:MBS402
Paper ID: 0314105
Paediatrics
Part `A'
Time: 20 Minutes
Max Marks: 10
Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 20 Minutes.
2. Please tick () correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.
3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.
Q.1
All of the following reflexes are present at
b)
Seizures last <10 minutes
birth except:
c) Good prognosis
a)
Rooting reflex
d)
Definitely progress to epilepsy
b)
Symmetric tonic neck reflex
c)
Asymmetric tonic neck reflex
Q.10 Commonest congenital heart disease is:
d)
Crossed extensor reflex
a)
ASD
b)
VSD
c)
TOF
d)
PDA
Q.2
IQ range for moderate mental retardation is:
Q.11 Viral infection commonly associated with
a)
51-70
"ampicillin rash":
b)
36-50
a)
Measles
c)
0-20
b)
Mumps
d)
21-35
c)
Rubella
Q.3
What is the size of uncuffed endotracheal
d)
EB virus
tube for 6 years old (in mm):
a)
6.0
P.T.O.
b)
6.5
Q.12 Earliest sign of rickets is:
c)
5.5
a)
Craniotabes
d)
5.0
b)
Harrison groove
c)
Rachitic rosary
Q.4
All of the following are true about Kawasaki
d)
Bowing of legs
disease except:
a)
Purulent conjunctivitis
Q.13 Commonest cause of systemic hypertension
b)
Strawberry tongue
in children is:
c)
Rash
a)
Nephrotic syndrome
d)
Fever
b)
Coarctation of aorta
c)
Acute glomerulonephritis
Q.5
All of the following are features of
d)
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
kawashiorkar except:
a)
High blood osmolality
Q.14 Breakdown of 1 gram of hemoglobin
b)
Edema
yields...........mg of bilirubin:
c)
Fatty liver
a)
15
d)
Flag sign
b)
25
Q.6
Capnography is used to measure:
c)
35
a)
End tidal oxygen
d)
45
b)
End tidal CO2
c)
O
Q.15 A mother kissing her baby finds her skin to be
2 saturation
d)
PaCO
salty. Most probably the cause is:
2
a)
Fanconi syndrome
Q.7
According to FAB classification, most
b)
Cystic fibrosis
common typoe of ALL is:
c)
Thallesemia
a)
L1
d)
Niemann pick disease
b)
L2
c)
L3
Q.16 Drug of choice for pertussis is:
d)
Burkitts lymphoma
a)
Amoxicillin
b)
Gentamicin
Q.8
Hypsarrhythmia EEG is seen in:
c)
Meropenem
a)
Grand mal epilepsy
d)
Macrolides
b)
Petit mal epilepsy
c)
Infantile spasms
Q.17 Most common complication of diphtheria in
d)
Reflex epilepsy
children is:
a)
Toxic cardiomyopathy
Q.9
Of the following, not true regarding typical
b)
Palatal palsy
febrile seizures is:
c)
Renal failure
a)
Most commonly < 5 years
d)
Neuropathy
Q.18 The features of Barter's syndrome include all
except:
a)
Hypercalciuria
b)
Hyperkalemia
c)
Metabolic alkalosis
d)
Polyhydramnios in mother
Q.19 Macrocytic anemia is produced by all except:
a)
Copper deficiency
b)
Thiamine deficiency
c)
Orotic aciduria
d)
Liver disease
Q.20
Most severe form of neural tube defect is:
a)
Meningomyelocele
b)
Spina bifida occulta
c)
Dermal sinus
d)
Meningocele
This post was last modified on 17 February 2022