Download MBBS TMU Final Year 2020 MBS404 General Surgery I Question Paper

Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) TMU (Teerthanker Mahaveer University) Final Year (4th Year) 2020 MBS404 General Surgery I Previous Question Paper


MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination

2019-20

Course Code: MBS404 Paper ID: 03119408

General Surgery - I

Time: 2 Hours 30 Minutes

Max Marks: 45

Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support

your answer.

Part `B'

1.

Classify degree of burn. How will you manage a case of
40% burn in an adult patient of 50 kg. body weight. (3+5)

2.

Describe briefly about Medullary carcinoma thyroid. (8)

3.

Write short note on: (3x3=9)

a)

Sentinel lymph node biopsy in carcinoma breast

b)

Ranula

c)

Sebaceous cyst

Part `C'

1.

Write short notes on the following: (3x4=12)

a)

Ewing's sarcoma

b)

Septic arthritis

c)

Wrist drop.

d)

Osteoarthritis

2.

Describe clinical features, investigations & management of
supracondylar fracture humerus. (8)

MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2019-20

Roll No.

Student's Name



Student's Signature

Invigilator's Signature



Course Code: MBS404



Paper ID: 03119408

General Surgery - I

Part `A'



Time: 30 Minutes

Max Marks: 15

Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 30 Minutes.
2. Please tick () correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.
3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.
Q.1

The best dressing of a wound is by means of:

Q.10

Basal cell carcinoma is also known as

a)

Cotton and Gauze

a)

Rodent ulcer

b)

Muscle

b)

Varicose ulcer

c)

Skin



c)

Tuberculous ulcer

d)

Fascia

d)

Epithelioma





Q.2

Which fluid is contraindicated during the first 24

Q.11

Whole blood is stored at:

hours of burn:

a)

20 - 6 0C

a)

Ringer's Lactate

b)

70-8 0C

b)

Dextrose Saline

c)

00- 1 0C

c)

Haemaccel

d)

90- 10 0C

d)

Blood

Q.12

Erysipelas is caused by:

Q.3

Nutrition of partial thickness skin graft during the

a)

Staphylococcus

first 48 hrs. is by:

b)

Streptococcus

a)

Imbibition

c)

Clostridia

b)

Inosculation

d)

Esch. Coli

c)

Revascularisation

d)

Evaporation

P.T.O.

Q.4

Marjolin's ulcer is a:

Q.13

Pott's puffy tumour is:

a)

Basal cell carcinoma

a)

Turban Tumour

b)

Squamous cell carcinoma

b)

Cock's peculiar tumour

c)

Venous ulcer

c)

Osteomyelitis of cranial bone

d)

Tuberculous ulcer

d)

Osteoma of cranial bone



Q.5

FNAC can not diagnose which of the following

Q.14

Black or greenish discharge from nipple is seen

thyroid malignant condition:

in:

a)

Papillary Carcinoma

a)

Duct ectasia

b)

Follicular carcinoma

b)

Duct Papilloma

c)

Anaplastic carcinoma

c)

Fibroadenosis of breast

d)

Medullary Thyroid carcinoma

d)

Carcinoma of breast

Q.6

Maximum Score in Glasgow coma scale is:

Q.15

Sarcoma's commonly spread by:

a)

10

a)

Lymphatic route

b)

12

b)

Haematogenous route.

c)

14

c)

Transperitoneal route

d)

15

d)

Perineural route

Q.7

Sialolithiasis is common in:

Q.16

Most common site for skeletal tuberculosis is:

a)

Parotid Salivary gland

a)

Hip

b)

Submandibular salivary gland

b)

Vertebrae

c)

Sublingual salivary gland

c)

Knee



d)

Mucosal salivary gland

d)

Wrist

Q.8

Collar stud abscess is found in:

Q.17

HLA B-27 is associated with:
a)

Rheumatoid arthritis



a)

Pyogenic abscess

b)

Systemic lupus erythemtosus

b)

Breast abscess

c)

Polymyositis

c)

Cold abscess in cervical region

d)

Ankylosing spondylitiss

d)

Intra- abdominal abscess

Q.18

Osteoporosis is due to:

Q.9

Foot drop is caused by injury to:

a)

Defective mineralisation

a)

Femoral nerve

b)

Lack of protein matrix

b)

Anterior tibial nerve

c)

Lack of minerals & protien

c) Common Peroneal nerve

d)

Causes not known

d)

Radial nerve

Q.19

Defective mineralization of osteoid in growing
children is seen in:

a)

Rickets

c)

Flexion, adduction, external rotation

b)

Osteomalacia

d)

Flexion, abduction, internal rotation

c)

Scurvy

d)

Osteoporosis

Q.29

Acute osteomyelitis is commonly caused by:
a)

Staph aureus

Q.20

Radiological appearance of Osteoclastoma is:

b)

S. pyogenes

a)

Sun ray

c)

H.influenzae

b)

Soap bubble

d)

Salmonella

c)

Onion peal

d)

Ground glass

Q.30

multiple myeloma tumor cells resemble:
a)

Granulocytes

Q.21

Froment's sign is due to the paralysis of:

b)

Lymphocytes

a)

Ulnar nerve

c)

Plasma cells

b)

Median nerve

d)

Chondrocytes

c)

Radial nerve

d)

Axillary nerve

Q.22

Carrying angle is decreased in:
a)

Cubitus varus

b)

Cubitus valgus.

c)

Genu varum

d)

Genu valgum

Q.23

Most common cause of VIC in children is due to:
a)

Supracondylar # humerus

b)

Lateral condyle # humerus

c)

Medial condyle # humerus

d)

Both bone forearm #

Q.24

Most common type of shoulder dislocation is:
a)

Anterior dislocation

b)

Posterior dislocation

c)

Subgleniod dislocation

d)

Inferior dislocation

Q.25

3 bony point relationship is preserved in which of
the following:
a)

Supracondylar fractures of humerus

b)

Intercondylar fracture

c)

Lateral condyle fracture

d)

Posterior dislocation of ulna

Q.26

Dinner fork deformity is seen in:
a)

Supracondylar fracture

b)

Colle's fracture

c)

Smith's fracture

d)

Barton's fracture

Q.27

Non ?union is commonly seen in:
a)

Scaphoid fracture

b)

Bennet's fracture

c)

Colle's fracture

d)

Smith's fracture

Q.28

The attitude/deformity of limb in anterior
dislocation of hip joint is:
a)

Flexion, adduction, internal rotation

b)

Flexion, abduction, external rotation

This post was last modified on 17 February 2022