Download MBBS TMU Final Year 2015 MBBS404B General Surgery II Question Paper

Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) TMU (Teerthanker Mahaveer University) Final Year (4th Year) 2015 MBBS404B General Surgery II Previous Question Paper


MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination

2014-15

Course Code: MBS404 Paper ID: 0314107

General Surgery - II

Time: 2 Hours 30 Minutes

Max Marks: 45

Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support

your answer.

Part `B'

1.

What are the causes of lump in the write ilea fossa. Write
management of perforated appendix. (8)

2.

Describe briefly about intraoperative and post operative
diagnosis of bile duct injury, classification and management of
bile duct injury. (3+2+3)

3.

Write short note on: (3x3=9)

a)

Post splenectomy complications

b)

Diagnosis and localization of insulinoma.

c)

Clinical presentation and surgical management of Hirschprung's
disease

Part `C'

1.

Write short notes on the following: (3x4=12)

a)

Breast reconstruction following mastectomy for carcinoma
breast

b)

Epidural anaesthesia

c)

Indications for tube thoracostomy (chest drain)

d)

Uses of ultra sound in surgery.

2.

Describe briefly about clinical presentation and diagnosis of
calculus disease of urinary tract? Describe different noninvasive
and minimally invasive treatment options for renal calculi. (4+4)

MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2014-15

Roll No.

Student's Name



Student's Signature

Invigilator's Signature



Course Code: MBS404

Paper ID: 0314107

General Surgery - II

Part `A'



Time: 30 Minutes

Max Marks: 15

Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 30 Minutes.
2. Please tick () correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.
3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.
Q.1

Which of the following is not a perineal approach for

a)

Bilateral hepatic lobe metastasis is an absolute

surgical treatment of rectal prolapse:

contraindication for surgery

a)

Resection rectopexy

b)

Future liver remnant volume can be increased by

b)

Thiersch operation

portal vein embolisation

c)

Delorme's procedure

c)

Colorectal carcinoma with hepatic metastasis

d)

Altemier's procedure

should only receive palliative chemotherapy



d)

Approximately 50 percent of patients with

Q.2

All of the following are causes of adynamic intestinal

colorectal cancer present with synchronous liver

obstruction except:

metastasis

a)

Pseudo-obstruction

b)

Paralytic ileus

Q.11

Which of the following statement is true regarding

c)

Mesenteric vascular obstruction

intermittent claudication:

d)

Adhesions

a)

It may be present at rest

b)

Intermittent claudication is most commonly felt

Q.3

All of the following are potential sites for internal

in the calf

herniation, except:

c)

Claudication distance is usually inconsistent on

a)

A hole in the transverse mesocolon

a day-to-day basis for a given patient

b)

Foramen of Winslow

d)

It is thought to be due to nerve compression in

c)

Paracaecal fossae

the leg muscle compartment

d)

In the recto-uterine pouch

Q.12

Which of the following statements regarding

Q.4

Which of the following statements is false about

complications of surgical treatment of varicose veins are

vermiform appendix:

true:

a)

The commonest position of the appendix is

a)

Wound infections rarely occurs

retrocaecal

b)

Foot drop may occur

b)

The position of the base of the appendix is

c)

Causalgia is a frequent complication

constant

d)

Saphenous nerve neuralgia occurs due to short

c)

The appendicular artery arises from the right

saphenous vein surgery

colic artery

d)

Argentaffin cells are found in the base of the

P.T.O.

crypts

Q.13

Indications for coronary artery bypass grafting are all
except:

Q.5

Which of the following is not a common position for

a)

>50 percent stenosis of the left main stem

primary haemorrhoidal cushion:
a)

Right lateral

b)

Left lateral

b)

Two or three main coronaries diseased



c)

Right anterior d)

Right posterior

c)

Poor ventricular function associated with multi-
vessel disease



Q.6

Amsterdam II criteria is proposed for screening for which

d)

> 30 percent stenosis of the proximal left

of the following disease:

anterior interventricular artery

a)

Familial adenomatous polyposis

b)

Peutz- Jeghers syndrome

Q.14

Which of the following about chyluria is false:

c)

Lynch syndrome

a)

Filaria is the most common cause

d)

Juvenile polyposis syndrome

b)

The chyle never clots

c)

Lymphagiography may be useful in

Q.7

Which of the following is not a characteristic of

lymphourinary fistula

pseudocyst of pancreas:

d)

Treatment includes a low fat and high protein

a)

Unilocular thick walled with debris in EUS

diet

b)

Communication with pancreatic duct may be
present

Q.15

Which of the following is not a recommended treatment

c)

Low fluid amylase with high fluid CEA

for malignant pleural effusion:

d)

Fluid cytology reveals inflammatory cells

a)

Chest tube drainage and talc slurry for
pleurodesis

Q.8

Which of the following is not a feature of chronic liver

b)

Thoracoscopy with pleural biopsy and drainage

disease:

with talc poudrage for pleurodesis

a)

Lethargy b)

Jaundice

c)

Chronic indwelling catheterization with at home

c)

Oliguria

d)

Spider naevi

drainage

d)

Complete pleurectomy at initial presentation

Q.9

Which of the following is not a parameter to access the
severity of acute pancreatitis in either Ranson or

Q.16

For microvascular free flap, what is the maximum time

Glassgow score:

for which the muscle tolerates the warm ischemia:

a)

Serum Calcium

a)

30 minutes

b)

2 hrs

b)

Serum amylase

c)

3 hrs

d)

4-6 hrs

c)

Lactate dehydrogenase

d)

Blood urea

Q.17

All are operations done for Lymphedema except is:
a)

Sistrunk operation b)

Homans operation

Q.10

Which of the following statement is true regarding

c)

Charles operation d)

Begers operation

colorectal cancer with hepatic metastasis:

Q.18

Which of the following is true for primary nerve repair:

a)

Primary nerve repair is done within 1 month of

c)

Wilms tumor

the injury

d)

Neuroblastoma

b)

Primary neurorrhaphy is recommended when
nerve is sharply incised

Q.28

Which of the following statement is false regarding

c)

Results of primary nerve repair is excellent even

management of burn patients:

in contaminated wound

a)

In adults with burns over 15 percent TBSA, IV

d)

Primary nerve repair should be done before

fluid is indicated

skeletal stability is achieved

b)

The key to monitor hydration is urine output

c)

Full thickness burns involves the entire

Q.19

All of the following about Wilms' tumor are correct

epidermis only

except:

d)

A nasogastric tube should be used in all patients

a)

Usually presents in the first five years of life

with burns over 15 percent of TBSA

b)

Also called as nephroblastoma

Q.29

Which of the following is false about reactionary

c)

Mostly treated by chemotherapy followed by

haemorrhage:

nephrectomy

a)

Defined as delayed haemorrhage occurring

d)

Lymphatic spread is common

within 24 hrs of operation

b)

Caused by dislodgement of clot, normalization

Q.20

On digital rectal examination which of the following

of blood pressure or slippage of ligature

features do not suggest prostate carcinoma:

c)

It is usually venous

a)

Nodules within the prostate

d)

It can be significant, requiring re-

b)

Obliteration of the median sulcus

exploration

c)

Mobile rectal mucosa over the prostate

d)

Irregular stony hard consistency

Q.30

Which of the following predispose to bile duct carcinoma:
a)

Gall bladder stones

Q.21

Following statements are true with regard to the

b)

Colorectal carcinoma

management of testicular tumors, except:

c)

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

a)

The commonest are the germ cell tumors

d)

Chronic calcific pancreatitis

b)

Seminomas metastasize mainly via the
hematogenous route

c)

Tumor markers (AFP and HCG) should be
measured prior to orchidectomy

d)

Seminomas are radiosensitive

Q.22

Which of the following has highest fetal radiation
exposure:
a)

Abdominal CT b)

Chest radiograph

c)

Head CT d)

Pelvic radiography

Q.23

Which of the following zone of the prostate gland is most
common location for prostatic cancer:
a)

Transitional zone b)

Central zone

c)

Peripheral zone

d)

Periurethral zone

Q.24

Which of the following is false about spleen:
a)

Haemangioma is the most common benign
tumor

b)

Lymphoma occurs rarely in the spleen

c)

Post-splenectomy septicaemia may result from
Haemophilusinfluenzae

d)

Splenunculi are found in the hilum of the spleen
in 50 percent of cases

Q.25

Which of the following is not an advantage of full
thickness skin graft:
a)

Better cosmetic outcome

b)

Can be meshed and increase surface area

c)

Better sensory recovery

d)

All of the above

Q.26

What is the most significant disadvantage of the laryngeal
mask airway (LMA) over an endotracheal tube:
a)

Failure to provide a competent airway

b)

Failure to allow tracheal suction

c)

Enhanced risk of tube obstruction

d)

Risk of pulmonary aspiration

Q.27

Most common extra-cranial solid tumor of childhood is:
a)

Glioblastomamultiforme

b)

Rhabdomyosarcoma

This post was last modified on 17 February 2022