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Roll No:
Application No:
Name:
Exam Date: 06-Oct-2020
Exam Time: 15:00-18:00
Examination: 1. Course Code - Ph.D.
2. Field of Study - Life Sciences Group -II (GTWH)
SECTION 1 - PART I

Question No.1 (Question Id - 113)
Given below are two statements
Statement I:
Air sac in pigeon are not respiratory in function as they are non-vascular structure.
Statement II:
Air sac in pigeon are respiratory in function as they are formed by the dilation of mucous membrane of
bronchus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(A)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B)
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (Correct Answer)
(D)
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
Question No.2 (Question Id - 109)
(A)
A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV (Correct Answer)
(B)
A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III
(C)
A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(D)
A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III
Question No.3 (Question Id - 119)
An enzyme catalyzed reaction has a Km value of 5 mM and a Vmax of 2.5 nM s-1. What is the reaction
velocity when the substrate concentration is 20 mM ?
(A)
2 mM s-1
(B)
2 nM s-1 (Correct Answer)
(C)
2.5 mM s-1
(D)
4 nM s-1
Question No.4 (Question Id - 101)

Given below are two statements :
Statement I:
In isometric contraction, length of the muscle does not change. Tension increases and then decreases.
Statement II:
In isotonic contraction, the muscle get shorten during the time when tension is being generated.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(A)
Both Statement I and Statement II are true (Correct Answer)
(B)
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(D)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Question No.5 (Question Id - 108)
In an experiment, a cell-line (Xq) was mutated to delete expression of aquaporin (Xqm). Thereafter,
both the cell-lines were incubated at room temperature for about 30 min in distilled, sterilized water.
Which of the following statements would be correct ?
(A)
Both the cell-lines will be lysed
(B)
Only Xqm will be lysed
(C)
None will be lysed
(D)
Only Xq will be lysed (Correct Answer)
Question No.6 (Question Id - 112)
Given below are two statements
Statement I:
Growth hormone and prolactin stain blue with basic dyes.
Statement II:
Thyroid stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone stain orange or red with acidic dye.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(A)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B)
Both the Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (Correct Answer)
(C)
Statement I is correct, while Statement II is incorrect.
(D)
Statement I is incorrect, while the Statement II is correct.
Question No.7 (Question Id - 111)
Frank Starling's law of the heart :
A. Does not operate in the failing heart
B. Does not operate during exercise
C. Explains the increase in heart rate produced by exercise
D. Explains the increase in cardiac output that occurs, when venous return is increased
E. Explains the increase in cardiac output when the sympathetic nerves supplying the heart rate are
stimulated
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A)
A, C and E are correct
(B)
B, D and E are correct
(C)
D is only correct (Correct Answer)


(D)
A, C, D and E are correct
Question No.8 (Question Id - 117)
In normal individuals although skeletal muscle may be tetanized, the heart muscle cannot. This is
because :
(A)
absolute refractory period is shorter than the relative refractory period.
(B)
absolute refractory period is longer than the relative refractory period. (Correct
Answer)

(C)
heart is supplied with autonomic nervous system.
(D)
heart is supplied with spinal as well as cranial nerves.
Question No.9 (Question Id - 104)
Rapid removal of neurotransmitters from the synaptic cleft occurs by :
(A)
metabolism only.
(B)
metabolism and reuptake only.
(C)
diffusion, metabolism and reuptake only. (Correct Answer)
(D)
receptor mediated reuptake only.
Question No.10 (Question Id - 116)
Generation of action potential follows all-or-none principle. This is due to :
(A)
Opening of voltage gated Na+ channels. (Correct Answer)
(B)
Closing of voltage gated Na+ channels.
(C)
Closing of chemical gated channels.
(D)
Opening of Ca+ channels.
Question No.11 (Question Id - 102)
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease, in which skeletal muscles become weak. The disease is
mainly caused by the formation of circulating antibody against :
(A)
Nicotinic cholinergic receptor (Correct Answer)
(B)
Muscarinic cholinergic receptor
(C)
Myosin
(D)
Acetyl-cholinesterase
Question No.12 (Question Id - 110)
(A)
A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(B)
A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II (Correct Answer)
(C)
A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(D)
A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
Question No.13 (Question Id - 115)



(A)
A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
(B)
A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I
(C)
A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I (Correct Answer)
(D)
A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
Question No.14 (Question Id - 114)
Which of the following cell types protects against sepsis secondary to translocation of intestinal
bacteria ?
(A)
Hepatic stellate cells
(B)
Kupffer cells (Correct Answer)
(C)
Hepatocyte
(D)
Gall bladder epithelial cells
Question No.15 (Question Id - 103)
Botulinum toxin prevents the release of neurotransmitter by acting on :
(A)
terminal boutons
(B)
neurexins
(C)
synaptosome-associated protein (SNAP-25) (Correct Answer)
(D)
kiss and run neurotransmission discharge
Question No.16 (Question Id - 106)
(A)
A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(B)
A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(C)
A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I (Correct Answer)
(D)
A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I
Question No.17 (Question Id - 118)
The latent period between suprathreshold stimulation and recording of action potential at a distance of
10 cm in a nerve bundle is 10 msec. The rate of conduction of action potential is :
(A)
1 m/sec
(B)
0.1 m/sec
(C)
10 m/sec (Correct Answer)


(D)
100 m/sec
Question No.18 (Question Id - 120)
Sphingomyelin is an amphipathic molecule that is present in the plasma membrane. Name the
hydrophobic and hydrophilic units in one molecule of sphingomyelin.
(A)
Hydrophobic : one fatty acid; Hydrophilic : Phosphoethanolamine
(B)
Hydrophobic : two fatty acids; Hydrophilic : Phosphoethanolamine
(C)
Hydrophobic : one fatty acid and a hydrocarbon chain of sphingosine; hydrophilic :
phosphocholine

(Correct Answer)
(D)
Hydrophobic : two fatty acids and a hydrocarbon chain of sphingosine; hydrophilic :
phosphocholine
Question No.19 (Question Id - 105)
(A)
A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II
(B)
A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III (Correct Answer)
(C)
A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III
(D)
A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
Question No.20 (Question Id - 107)
Blood haemoglobin appears :
(A)
bright red when bound to CO2
(B)
darkish when bound to O2
(C)
bright red when bound to CO (Correct Answer)
(D)
darkish when bound to CO
SECTION 2 - PART II
Question No.1 (Question Id - 5)
Among F, Cl, O and N which of the following is the correct arrangement of their chemical reactivity ?
(A)
F > Cl > O > N (Correct Answer)
(B)
F > O > N > Cl
(C)
O > F > N > Cl
(D)
Cl > F > O > N
Question No.2 (Question Id - 17)
You are preparing a phosphate buffer by mixing 25 ml of 50 mM Na2 HPO4 and 50 ml of 50 mM
NaH2PO4. What would be the final concentration of the buffer ?
(A)
50 mM (Correct Answer)
(B)
25 mM
(C)
100 mM

(D)
37.5 mM
Question No.3 (Question Id - 72)
Which residue will distort the - helix ?
(A)
Phenylalanine
(B)
Aspartic acid
(C)
Proline (Correct Answer)
(D)
Leucine
Question No.4 (Question Id - 2)
In a survey of 400 students in a school, 100 were listed as taking apple juice and 150 as taking orange
juice and 75 were listed as taking both orange as well as apple juice. How many students were taking
neither of these two ?
(A)
225 (Correct Answer)
(B)
75
(C)
325
(D)
125
Question No.5 (Question Id - 38)
A multiple sequence alignment of the following six nucleotide sequences is performed.
ACGTTCCTCCGAA
GCATTTCTCCAAA
CTGTTCCTCTGAG
TCATTCCTCCAAG
CCATTCCTTCGAA
ACGTTCCTCCGAG
The consensus sequence representing most frequent nucleotide at a position using IUPAC-IUBMB
nucleotide symbols will be, (where N- any nucleotide, R -purine, Y- pyrimidine)
(A)
NCRTTCCTCCRAR (Correct Answer)
(B)
NNNTTNCTCCAAY
(C)
NNYTTCCTNNYAR
(D)
NNRTTNCTRNYAR
Question No.6 (Question Id - 91)
An indicator of quantum yield of photosynthesis is the mole of O2 evolved __________.
(A)
per unit area of leaf surface
(B)
per gram of leaf
(C)
per mole of light fallen on the leaf
(D)
per mole of photon absorbed (Correct Answer)
Question No.7 (Question Id - 15)
The decimal reduction time (D value) of a 1% solution of a bactericidal agent is 5 minutes. If a culture
has initially 5 x 106 live bacteria, the number of live bacteria after 15 minutes of exposure will be :
(A)
5 x 103 (Correct Answer)
(B)
3 x 104
(C)
5 x 104
(D)
3 x 105
Question No.8 (Question Id - 22)
If the father has the genotype hh IBIB and the mother has the genotype HH IAIB, then what proportion
of progeny will have `O' blood group ?
(A)
0% (Correct Answer)
(B)
25%


(C)
50%
(D)
75%
Question No.9 (Question Id - 55)
(A)
A and D only (Correct Answer)
(B)
A and B only
(C)
C and D only
(D)
C and B only
Question No.10 (Question Id - 44)
Which of the following are the properties of epitopes recognized by T Cell receptors ?
A. Internal epitope
B. Linear peptides
C. Conformational
D. Bound to MHC
E. Non-sequential
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(A)
A and B only
(B)
A, B and C only
(C)
A, B and D only (Correct Answer)
(D)
C, D and E only
Question No.11 (Question Id - 9)
The half-life of radium is about 1600 years. After how many years 200 g of Radium will turn into 25 g
of Radium ?
(A)
4000 years
(B)
3200 years
(C)
4800 years (Correct Answer)
(D)
9000 years


Question No.12 (Question Id - 65)
(A)
A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
(B)
A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III (Correct Answer)
(C)
A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III
(D)
A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
Question No.13 (Question Id - 36)
Which of the following is NOT correct about Autophagy ?
(A)
Autophagy is triggered by nutritional starvation
(B)
Autophagy can be monitored by fluorescent probe
(C)
Autophagy is a Caspase I-dependent process (Correct Answer)
(D)
A process of cell death mediated by its own lysozyme
Question No.14 (Question Id - 24)
The ratio of sex chromosome (X) to Autosome (A) in a metamale Drosophila will be :
(A)
1.5
(B)
1.3
(C)
0.67
(D)
0.33 (Correct Answer)
Question No.15 (Question Id - 6)
Which of the following contains lowest number of atoms ?
(A)
1g H2
(B)
1g O2
(C)
1g Br2 (Correct Answer)
(D)
1g N2
Question No.16 (Question Id - 99)
The maximum absorption of short-chain fatty acids produced by bacteria occurs in the :
(A)
Duodenum
(B)
Jejunum
(C)
Ileum
(D)
Colon (Correct Answer)
Question No.17 (Question Id - 96)
In which subcellular compartment, glycolate is oxidized to glyoxalate ?
(A)
Peroxisome (Correct Answer)
(B)
Dictyosome
(C)
Chloroplast
(D)
Mitochondrion
Question No.18 (Question Id - 8)
In colloidal system, which one of the following phenomena occurs against the action of gravity ?


(A)
Coagulation
(B)
Creaming (Correct Answer)
(C)
Coacervation
(D)
Coalescence
Question No.19 (Question Id - 76)
(A)
A and E Only
(B)
B Only
(C)
C Only (Correct Answer)
(D)
A and D Only
Question No.20 (Question Id - 53)
In eukaryotes, pre-mRNAs are spliced into mature mRNAs. The small nuclear ribonuclear proteins
(snRNPs) have critical roles in splicing of eukaryotic nuclear pre-mRNAs into mRNAs. Following
statements are made in this regard.
A. snRNP, the core of the spliceosome, is formed by association of snRNA with at least seven protein
subunits
B. Spliceosome uses energy of ATP hydrolysis
C. Proteins in the spliceosome exclusively carry out the catalysis
D. Catalytic role in splicing is largely performed by RNA molecules in the spliceosome
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A)
A, B, C and D
(B)
B, C and D Only
(C)
A, C and D Only
(D)
A, B and D Only (Correct Answer)
Question No.21 (Question Id - 77)
Given below are two statements :
Statement I:
DNA methylation in mammalian cells is found only when cytosines are located 5' to guanines.
Statement II:
DNA replication and DNA methylation occurs simultaneously during S phase of the cell cycle.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(A)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B)
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(D)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (Correct Answer)
Question No.22 (Question Id - 42)
Tertiary lymphoid tissues are sites :
(A)
where lymphocytes develop and mature
(B)
where lymphocytes encounter antigen for first time and become activated
(C)
where lymphocytes undergo clonal expansion and differentiation into effector cells.
(D)
of infection to which lymphocytes return as effector cells and also reside as memory
cells

(Correct Answer)
Question No.23 (Question Id - 45)
Which of the following statements about T cells is TRUE ?
A. T regulatory cells differentiate in the bone marrow
B. IL12 induces expression of FOXP3 in Treg cells
C. CTLA-4 binding to B7 inhibits TCR mediated T cell activation
D. Despite engagement of TCR by antigen, absence of co-stimulatory signal leads to anergy
E. CTLA-4 is constitutively expressed on all resting T cells
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A)
A, B, C, D only
(B)
A, B and C only
(C)
C, D and E only
(D)
C and D only (Correct Answer)
Question No.24 (Question Id - 18)
If you have to use 10 picomole of a 20 nucleotide oligonucleotide as a primer in a 50 l PCR reaction,
how much oligonucleotide would you need ? (average formula weight of each nucleotide is 333)
(A)
6.66 ng
(B)
66.6 ng (Correct Answer)
(C)
666 ng
(D)
6660 ng
Question No.25 (Question Id - 62)
Homeodomain proteins are characterized by :
(A)
Helix-turn-helix motif (Correct Answer)
(B)
Zinc-finger motif
(C)
Cys-Cys-His-His motif
(D)
Cys-Cys-Cys-Cys motif
Question No.26 (Question Id - 33)
Which one of the following regarding Caenorhabditis elegans development is TRUE ?
(A)
It demonstrates both the conditional and autonomous modes of cell specification
(Correct Answer)
(B)
Inhibition of FOXO/DAF-16 promote longevity
(C)
Deletion of distal tip cell will allow the nearby cells to be in a mitotic state

(D)
PAL-1 is required for germ line cell fate
Question No.27 (Question Id - 88)
Which of the following Agrobacterium proteins are capable of moving up to the plant nucleus ?
A. Vir A
B. Vir G
C. Vir D2
D. Vir E2
Choose the correct answer from the following :
(A)
A and B only
(B)
B and C only
(C)
B and D only
(D)
C and D only (Correct Answer)
Question No.28 (Question Id - 12)
UGA is normally a stop codon that terminates polypeptide synthesis. But in case of certain proteins it
is also used to incorporate an amino acid. Identify the amino acid.
(A)
Hydroxyl proline
(B)
D-alanine
(C)
Selenocysteine (Correct Answer)
(D)
Acetylated lysine
Question No.29 (Question Id - 78)
Which of the following is NOT a major force stabilizing the nucleic acid double helical structure ?
(A)
Hydrogen bond
(B)
Base stacking
(C)
Ionic interactions (Correct Answer)
(D)
Hydrophobic interactions
Question No.30 (Question Id - 70)
Glycosylation is the process of :
(A)
elongation of starch by the addition of glucose molecules
(B)
addition of sugars to lipid or protein molecules (Correct Answer)
(C)
breakdown of starch into glucose
(D)
internalization of glucose by endocytosis
Question No.31 (Question Id - 50)
Cells labelled with a fluorescent probe can be sorted into different populations using one of the
following technique :
(A)
Fluorescent microscopy
(B)
Flow cytometery (Correct Answer)
(C)
Fluorescence recovery after photobleaching (FRAP)
(D)
Fluorescence Resonance Energy Transfer (FRET)
Question No.32 (Question Id - 58)
Which one of the following is referred to as the 21st amino acid ?
(A)
-Amino butyric acid
(B)
4-Hydroxy proline
(C)
Selenocysteine (Correct Answer)


(D)
Ornithine
Question No.33 (Question Id - 25)
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
R

Assertion A :
Histone H3 lysine-9 acetylation is associated with transcription activation.
Reason R :
Acetylation of histone H3 lysine-9 weakens DNA interaction with nucleosome.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A)
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(Correct Answer)
(B)
Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C)
A is correct but R is not correct
(D)
A is not correct but R is correct
Question No.34 (Question Id - 37)
In an experiment adipocytes are treated with insulin for 10 minutes. Which of the following statement is
true for these cells ?
(A)
insulin treatment increases the transcription of Glut4
(B)
insulin treatment will increase the translation of Glut4
(C)
insulin treatment increases the Glut4 transport to plasma membrane
(Correct Answer)
(D)
insulin treatment increases the stability of Glut4 protein
Question No.35 (Question Id - 35)
(A)
A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
(B)
A -IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
(C)
A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
(D)
A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III (Correct Answer)
Question No.36 (Question Id - 71)
Which internal symmetry is not observed in globular structure of proteins ?
(A)
6-fold symmetry
(B)
2-fold symmetry
(C)
4-fold symmetry
(D)
5-fold symmetry (Correct Answer)

Question No.37 (Question Id - 87)
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
R

Assertion A:
Stem grafting in monocot plants often become unsuccessful.
Reason R:
The vascular bundle of monocots are scattered and thus do not align in the graft.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(A)
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(B)
Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A (Correct Answer)
(C)
A is correct but R is not correct
(D)
A is not correct but R is correct
Question No.38 (Question Id - 39)
Arrange in correct order the following steps involved in processing of antigen for presentation to CD8
positive T cells :
A. Transport of peptides into ER via TAP transporters
B. Tapasin-mediated loading of peptide onto MHC I
C. Production of peptides by immunoproteosome
D. Exit of MHC I peptide complex from ER
E. ERAP mediated trimming of peptides
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A)
A, B, C, D, E
(B)
C, B, D, A, E
(C)
C, A, E, B, D (Correct Answer)
(D)
B, C, D, E, A
Question No.39 (Question Id - 80)
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
R
Assertion A:

Leaf-like flat stems of cacti are homologous to stems and spines are homologous to leaves.
Reason R:
In cacti, leaves are modified into spines, and stems are modified into leaf-like structures.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(A)
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A (Correct Answer)
(B)
Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C)
A is correct but R is not correct
(D)
A is not correct but R is correct
Question No.40 (Question Id - 52)
Given below are two statements
Statement I :
Telomere sequence is different in each chromosome.
Statement II :

Telomeres are replicated by a special mechanism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(A)
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B)
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(D)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true (Correct Answer)
Question No.41 (Question Id - 47)
Given below are two statements :
Statement I :
In case of 2 microglobulin deficient mice, a functional MHC Class I molecule is not formed so
transient MHC class I molecule expression is not observed on the cell surface.
Statement II :
In case of TAP-/- mice empty MHC class I molecules are transiently expressed on the surface of the
cell.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(A)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (Correct Answer)
(B)
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(D)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Question No.42 (Question Id - 64)
Given below are two statements :
Statement I:
Transmission electron microscopy is used to examine the interior of a thin section.
Statement II:
Cryoelectron microscopy allows direct visualization of even interior features of three-dimensional
structures.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(A)
Both Statement I and Statement II are true (Correct Answer)
(B)
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(D)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
Question No.43 (Question Id - 79)
In which of the following phenomenon there is a major change in hybridization ?
(A)
Formation of carbocation (Correct Answer)
(B)
Resonance
(C)
Keto-enol tautomerism
(D)
Formation of carbanion
Question No.44 (Question Id - 31)


(A)
A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(B)
A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
(C)
A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
(D)
A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II (Correct Answer)
Question No.45 (Question Id - 34)
Double stranded DNA shows helical chirality. Accordingly, the relationship between two sets of tetra
nucleotide ATGC and TACG is :
(A)
Enantiomer
(B)
Diastereomer
(C)
Constitutional isomer (Correct Answer)
(D)
Geometric isomer
Question No.46 (Question Id - 23)
What proportion of progeny will have AaBbCcDdEe genotype, when AaBbCcDdEe genotype is
crossed with AABbCcDdee genotype ?
(A)
1/32 (Correct Answer)
(B)
1/64
(C)
1/128
(D)
1/256
Question No.47 (Question Id - 16)
Human DNA contains 20% Cytosine on a molar basis. The mole percentage of Adenine, Guanine and
Thymine are :
(A)
40% Adenine, 20% Guanine and 20% Thymine
(B)
20% Adenine, 40% Guanine and 20% Thymine
(C)
30% Adenine, 20% Guanine and 30% Thymine (Correct Answer)
(D)
20% Adenine, 30% Guanine and 20% Thymine
Question No.48 (Question Id - 83)
Cytoskeletal structure that provides the site for new cell wall synthesis in plant is called :
(A)
metaphasic plate
(B)
middle lamella
(C)
pre-prophase band (Correct Answer)
(D)
spindle fiber
Question No.49 (Question Id - 97)


Which one of the following virus replicates in the nucleus ?
(A)
Tobacco leaf curl virus (Correct Answer)
(B)
Tobacco mosaic virus
(C)
Tobacco rattle virus
(D)
Tobacco necrosis virus
Question No.50 (Question Id - 28)
(A)
A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(B)
A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I
(C)
A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I (Correct Answer)
(D)
A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV
Question No.51 (Question Id - 90)
The pivotal success story of green revolution due to the efforts of Dr. Norman Borlaug and Dr. M. S.
Swaminathan has primarily been an outcome of alteration in :
(A)
Gibberellins signalling (Correct Answer)
(B)
Auxin Response Factor (ARF)
(C)
ABA receptor
(D)
ethylene receptor
Question No.52 (Question Id - 11)
Which of the following is wrongly matched ?
(A)
Charle's Law - Friction and perpendicular force (Correct Answer)
(B)
Coloumb's Law - Charges of particles
(C)
Boyle's Law - Pressure and volume of gas
(D)
Stroke's Law - Expansion and compression of spring
Question No.53 (Question Id - 54)
cAMP is the secondary messenger. It is synthesized from ATP by which enzyme ?
(A)
ATP phosphatase
(B)
ATP dehydrogenase
(C)
Adenyl cyclase (Correct Answer)
(D)
Adenyl phosphodiesterase
Question No.54 (Question Id - 49)




(A)
A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(B)
A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
(C)
A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(D)
A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III (Correct Answer)
Question No.55 (Question Id - 43)
(A)
A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
(B)
A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV (Correct Answer)
(C)
A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV
(D)
A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
Question No.56 (Question Id - 94)
(A)
A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I
(B)
A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV (Correct Answer)
(C)
A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
(D)
A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
Question No.57 (Question Id - 67)
Catalysis of phosphatidylinositol 4,5 bis-phosphate (PIP2) into diacylglycerol (DAG) and inositol
trisphosphate (IP3) requires which one of the following enzymes ?

(A)
phospholipase C (PLC) (Correct Answer)
(B)
Phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K)
(C)
Phosphodiesterase C (PdeC)
(D)
Phosphatase
Question No.58 (Question Id - 21)
A bacteria with genotype bio+ met+ lac+ was used as donor in a transformation experiment. The
genotype of the acceptor bacteria was bio- met- lac-. The genotypes of transformants were :
bio+met-lac- = 50 transformants
bio+met-lac+ = 149 transformants
bio+met+ lac- = 10 transformants
bio+met+lac+ = 17 transformants
Based on the observed frequencies identify the most correct statement.
(A)
bio and lac are close to each other on the genetic map. (Correct Answer)
(B)
bio and met are close to each other on the genetic map.
(C)
The order of the gene is bio, met, lac.
(D)
The distance between bio and lac is 7.5 m.u.
Question No.59 (Question Id - 66)
The Cyclin dependent kinase (Cdk)-cyclin A complex is a critical regulator of cell cycle progression.
What happens to Cdk and Cyclin A during the metaphase stage ?
(A)
Only Cdk is degraded
(B)
Only cyclin A is degraded (Correct Answer)
(C)
Both Cdk and cyclin A are degraded
(D)
Cdk is upregulated, but cyclin A remains stable
Question No.60 (Question Id - 89)
Accumulation of osmolytes under drought stress in soybean plant causes :
(A)
Lowering of water potential (w) (Correct Answer)
(B)
Lowering of cell turger (P)
(C)
Reduction in cell volume
(D)
Increase in water potential (w)
Question No.61 (Question Id - 86)
Sporic meiosis refers to the process in which :
(A)
spores undergo meiosis to develop haploid organisms
(B)
meiosis develops spores instead of gametes (Correct Answer)
(C)
meiosis forms gametes which fuse to form spores
(D)
spores fuse to develop diploid cell that undergo meiosis
Question No.62 (Question Id - 3)
A group consists of 4 girls and 7 boys. In how many ways can a team of 5 members be selected if the
team has at least one boy and one girl ?
(A)
441 (Correct Answer)
(B)
360
(C)
576
(D)
214
Question No.63 (Question Id - 59)
When blood glucose concentration decreases, liver glycogen is broken down, that increases glucose
level. Identify the correct sequence of events in this regard.

(A)
Glucagon adenylate cyclase cAMP glucose 6P glucose (Correct Answer)
(B)
Glucagon cAMP adenylate cyclase glucose 6P glucose
(C)
Glucagon adenylate cyclase cAMP glucose glucose 6P
(D)
Glucagon cAMP adenylate cyclase glucose glucose 6P
Question No.64 (Question Id - 92)
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
R

Assertion A :
Rice genome has higher number of proteins than genes.
Reason R :
The non-coding sequences in the rice genome do not code for proteins.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A)
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(B)
Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A (Correct Answer)
(C)
A is correct but R is not correct
(D)
A is not correct but R is correct
Question No.65 (Question Id - 30)
Given below are two statements
Statement I :
The position where limbs emerge in chick from the body depends on Hox gene expression.
Statement II :
Tbx 4 induces the forelimb whereas Tbx5 (chick) and Islet1 (mouse) induce hindlimb identity.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(A)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B)
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (Correct Answer)
(D)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Question No.66 (Question Id - 63)
Identify the statement that is NOT correct regarding SUMOylation.
(A)
It is a post-translational modification
(B)
SUMO proteins are similar to ubiquitin
(C)
It requires ligases
(D)
It most occurs in bacterial pathogens (Correct Answer)
Question No.67 (Question Id - 10)
Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A)
Gamma () rays have negligible mass and carry no charge and they are not deflected in
an electric or magnetic field.

(Correct Answer)
(B)
Gamma () rays have negligible mass but carry charge and they are deflected in an electric or
magnetic field.
(C)
Gamma () rays have less penetrating power than -rays.
(D)
Alpha () rays have negligible mass and carry no charge and they are not deflected in an
electric or magnetic field.



Question No.68 (Question Id - 100)
(A)
A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
(B)
A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II
(C)
A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II (Correct Answer)
(D)
A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
Question No.69 (Question Id - 84)
(A)
(A)-Epidermis, (B)-Quiescent centre, (C)-Columella
(B)
(A)-Epidermis, (B)-Vascular Initial, (C)-Cap cells
(C)
(A)-Cap cells, (B)-Quiescent centre, (C)-Columella (Correct Answer)
(D)
(A)-Cap cells, (B)-Vascular Initial, (C)-Cap Initials
Question No.70 (Question Id - 4)
In a class of 40 students 70% appear for an exam and one fourth of those who appeared for the exam
scored more than or equal to 90%. How many students either did not appear for the exam or scored
less than 90% ?
(A)
21
(B)
22
(C)
28
(D)
33 (Correct Answer)
Question No.71 (Question Id - 82)
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
R

Assertion A :
Individual lipid molecules do not freely flip across the membrane.
Reason R :
Flipping across will require the hydrophilic head to move through the hydrophobic internal part of the
bilayer which will be a thermodynamically non-favourable event.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A)
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A (Correct Answer)
(B)
Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C)
A is correct but R is not correct
(D)
A is not currect but R is correct
Question No.72 (Question Id - 7)
In a chemical reaction molecule `X' donates electron to molecule `Y'. Which of following statements are
correct about X and Y molecules ?
(A)
Molecule X is oxidized and Y is a reductant
(B)
Molecule X is oxidized and Y is an oxidant (Correct Answer)
(C)
Molecule X is an oxidant and Y is oxidized
(D)
Molecule X is a reductant and Y is oxidized
Question No.73 (Question Id - 41)
Four unlabeled tubes contain either whole IgG or F(ab')2 or Fab or Fc fragments of antibody. Tube A
contents are able to cause agglutination but not able to fix complement. Tube B contents are able to
cause agglutination and fix complement. Tube C contents are able to bind antigen but not able to
agglutinate or fix complement. Tube D contents are neither able to bind to antigen nor agglutinate nor
fix complement. Identify the contents of the tubes.
(A)
A : F(ab')2; B : IgG; C : Fab; D : Fc (Correct Answer)
(B)
A : IgG; B : F(ab')2; C : Fab ; D : Fc
(C)
A : Fc ; B : Fab; C : F(ab')2; D : IgG
(D)
A : Fab ; B : Fc; C : IgG; D : F(ab')2
Question No.74 (Question Id - 85)
Read the following two statements related to pollination and fertilization in angiosperms.
Statement I:
Pollen tube emerges from micropyle of pollen grain, moves through style, and enter through
germination pore of the embryo sac.
Statement II:
Pollen tube is attracted towards embryo sac through LURE peptide secreted from synergids.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(A)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B)
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(D)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (Correct Answer)
Question No.75 (Question Id - 69)
Which one of the following statements about helix is FALSE ?
(A)
The and torsional angles of - helix are -60? and -30? respectively.
(B)
The - helix has 3.6 residues per turn.
(C)
The -helix has 5.4 residues per turn. (Correct Answer)
(D)
There is a hydrogen bond between C'=O' of the nth residue and NH of the n+4th residue.
Question No.76 (Question Id - 19)
You have dissolved 1.8 g glucose in 100 l water. The concentration of glucose would be
(molecular weight glucose = 180)
(A)
10 ?M
(B)
100 ?M (Correct Answer)


(C)
10 mM
(D)
100 mM
Question No.77 (Question Id - 51)
Metagenomic studies of the oral cavity indicate that the site potentially contains microbes with a
diverse range of antibiotic resistance genes (ARGs), such as those encoding resistance to
tetracycline, amoxicillin and gentamycin. Similar studies performed on tribal communities living in
isolation also show the presence of ARGs against the aforesaid antibiotics in their oral cavity. Identify
the correct interpretation from the following options.
(A)
Oral ARGs are not a natural feature of human oral cavity.
(B)
Prior exposure to antibiotics is not necessary for the evolution of antibiotic resistant
strains.

(Correct Answer)
(C)
Resistance mechanisms against tetracycline and amoxicillin are similar.
(D)
The ARGs detected in the oral cavity are solely due to the presence of a multidrug resistant
bacterial strain.
Question No.78 (Question Id - 61)
Identify the molecule that belongs to a different class than the other three.
(A)
Glycosides (Correct Answer)
(B)
Cerebrosides
(C)
Gangliosides
(D)
Sphingomyelins
Question No.79 (Question Id - 56)
(A)
A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV (Correct Answer)
(B)
A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II (Correct Answer)
(C)
A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II (Correct Answer)
(D)
A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II (Correct Answer)
Question No.80 (Question Id - 57)


(A)
A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
(B)
A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
(C)
A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III
(D)
A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III (Correct Answer)
Question No.81 (Question Id - 75)
A cell receives a signal to synthesis the secretary protein `X'. What is the correct order in which
protein `X' will traverse for secretion ?
(A)
Golgi cisternae - ER transport vesicle-Smooth ER-secretory vesicle-cell surface.
(B)
Smooth ER-Golgi transport vesicle-Golgi cisternae-secretory vesicle-cell surface.
(C)
Rough ER-Golgi transport vesicle-Golgi cisternae-secretory vesicle-cell surface.
(Correct Answer)

(D)
Rough ER-Smooth ER-Golgi transport vesicle-Golgi cisternae-secretory vesicle-Cell surface.
Question No.82 (Question Id - 13)
If 100 microliter of starting culture with 7000 cells/ml is diluted to 5 ml, how many bacteriophage
particles would be present per ml of the diluted culture, given that on an average each bacterial cell
harbors about 20 bacteriophages.
(A)
2800 (Correct Answer)
(B)
14000
(C)
1400
(D)
7000
Question No.83 (Question Id - 26)
The number of diploid genotypes possible for a gene with 4 alleles is :
(A)
6
(B)
8
(C)
10 (Correct Answer)
(D)
12
Question No.84 (Question Id - 1)
Pioneering discovery of reverse-transcriptase that has paved the method for cDNA library construction
from cellular mRNAs was made by :
(A)
J.D. Watson and F.H.C. Crick
(B)
H. Temin and D. Baltimore (Correct Answer)
(C)
P. Sharp and R. Roberts
(D)
M. Bishop and T. Hunter
Question No.85 (Question Id - 20)
A 2.5M NaCl solution is equivalent to (molecular weight of NaCl = 58.44)
(A)
0.146% (w/v)
(B)
1.46% (w/v)

(C)
14.6% (w/v) (Correct Answer)
(D)
146% (w/v)
Question No.86 (Question Id - 60)
Which among the following is NOT a signaling kinase ?
(A)
MAP Kinase
(B)
Thymidine kinase (Correct Answer)
(C)
PI3 Kinase
(D)
Akt kinase
Question No.87 (Question Id - 95)
Lateral roots of dicotyledonous plants mostly arise from __________.
(A)
Vascular initial
(B)
Differential cells of pericycle (Correct Answer)
(C)
Lateral cap and epithelial initials
(D)
Axial root meristem
Question No.88 (Question Id - 46)
T-Bet is a transcription factor that induces the expression of __________ effector cytokine
__________. This represses the expression of __________ transcriptional regulator __________.
(A)
TH1, IFN, TH2, GATA-3 (Correct Answer)
(B)
TH2, IL4, TH1, GATA-3
(C)
TH2, IL12, TH1, GATA-3
(D)
TH1, GATA-3, TH2, IFN
Question No.89 (Question Id - 14)
Given below are two statements
Statement I :
The nucleotide sequences of many genes in humans are highly similar to their orthologs in
chimpanzee.
Statement II :
The nucleotide sequence of human pseudogenes are highly similar to their functional counterpart in
human genome.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(A)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (Correct Answer)
(B)
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(D)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Question No.90 (Question Id - 81)
An Arabidopsis plant is a double mutant of apetala1 and apetala2. What will be the phenotype of
flowers ?
(A)
carpel-carpel-carpel-carpel
(B)
carpel-stamen-stamen-carpel (Correct Answer)
(C)
sepal-sepal-carpel-carpel
(D)
sepal-sepal-sepal-sepal
Question No.91 (Question Id - 93)
Which of the following pigment in plants play key role in photomorphogenesis ?
(A)
Chlorophyll
(B)
Phytochrome (Correct Answer)
(C)
Cytochrome
(D)
Anthocyanine


Question No.92 (Question Id - 74)
Immunotherapy using monoclonal antibodies against CTLA-4 results in tumor regression. The possible
reason for this anti-tumour effect is :
(A)
CTLA-4 results in proliferation of tumour cells.
(B)
CTLA-4 prevents tumour antigen presentation by MHC molecules to T cells.
(C)
CTLA-4 engagement results in T-cell inhibition. (Correct Answer)
(D)
CTLA-4 engagement results in T-cell activation.
Question No.93 (Question Id - 98)
(A)
Two bands greater than or equal to 4 kb (Correct Answer)
(B)
A single band of 0.9 kb
(C)
Two bands of 4 kb and 3 kb
(D)
A single band greater than or equal to 7 kb
Question No.94 (Question Id - 68)
Following statements are made regarding cell signalling involving integrins :
A. Integrins are receptors for extracellular matrix proteins
B. Talin and -actinin are cytoskeletal proteins that bind integrin subunits and link to more complex
cytoskeleton structures like focal adhesins.
C. They do not mediate interactions with proteins present on other cells.
D. They initiate signalling that control cell cycle entry, cell proliferation and differentiation.
Choose the correct statements from the options given below :
(A)
A, B and C only
(B)
B, C and D only
(C)
A, B and D only (Correct Answer)
(D)
A, C and D only
Question No.95 (Question Id - 48)
Which of the following statements is FALSE ?
(A)
Hfr cells cannot undergo conjugation with F - cells. (Correct Answer)
(B)
F + cells can undergo conjugation with F - cells.
(C)
F - cells cannot undergo conjugation with F - cells.
(D)
F' cells can undergo conjugation with F - cells.
Question No.96 (Question Id - 27)
The LD50/30 is the dose of radiation :
(A)
required to kill 50% of the given population in 30 days after exposure
(Correct Answer)
(B)
that kills 50% of population if exposed to a beam with LET value of 30

(C)
required to kill 30-50% of the total population
(D)
that kills 30% of population if exposed to the beam with a LET value of 50
Question No.97 (Question Id - 40)
Given below are two statements :
Statement I :
All Ig molecules on surface of a given B cell have same idiotype.
Statement II :
All Ig molecules on surface of a given B cell have same isotype.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(A)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B)
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (Correct Answer)
(D)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Question No.98 (Question Id - 29)
Lysogenic conversion is defined as :
(A)
coexistence of a bacteriophage with its bacterial host.
(B)
inheritance of a new phenotypic trait by the host. (Correct Answer)
(C)
a process that triggers lysis of the host cell.
(D)
a process that results in DNA transfer from the bacterial host to the bacteriophage.
Question No.99 (Question Id - 32)
Following statements with respect to development in sea urchin were made :
A. The blastopore becomes the mouth and the anus is formed elsewhere.
B. The micromeres are specified autonomously where maternal -catenin plays an important role.
C. The macromeres regulate the fates of their neighbouring cells through juxtacrine and paracrine
pathways.
D. The large micromeres become the skeleton of the larva and the small micromeres contribute to
coelomic pouches and the germ cells of the adult.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(A)
A and B only
(B)
A and C only
(C)
B and C only
(D)
B and D only (Correct Answer)
Question No.100 (Question Id - 73)


(A)
A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II (Correct Answer)
(B)
A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
(C)
A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
(D)
A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I
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This post was last modified on 21 January 2021