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Delhi University Entrance Test (DUET) 2020 Previous Year Question Paper With Answer Key

DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
Topic: BIOSCI PHD S2
1) On selfing an insect of Aa Bb genotype, what proportion of progeny will be recessive homozygous for atleast one gene?
[Question ID = 517]
1. 1/16 [Option ID = 2062]
2. 3/16 [Option ID = 2063]
3. 7/16 [Option ID = 2064]
4. 9/16 [Option ID = 2065]
Correct Answer :
7/16 [Option ID = 2064]
2) A nonsense mutant A reverted to wild type. When this revertant was crossed with a wild type, few mutants with
phenotype of A were detected again. This shows that the revertant was
[Question ID = 518]
1. A true revertant [Option ID = 2066]
2. A suppressor mutation [Option ID = 2067]
3. A dominant mutation [Option ID = 2068]
4. A regulator mutation [Option ID = 2069]
Correct Answer :
A suppressor mutation [Option ID = 2067]
3) In terms of lac operon regulation, what happens when E. coli is grown in medium containing both glucose and lactose?
[Question ID = 519]
1. Both CAP and the lac repressor are bound to the DNA
[Option ID = 2070]
2. CAP is bound to the DNA but the lac repressor is not
[Option ID = 2071]
3. Lac repressor is bound to the DNA but CAP is not
[Option ID = 2072]
4. Neither CAP nor the lac repressor are bound to the DNA
[Option ID = 2073]
Correct Answer :
Neither CAP nor the lac repressor are bound to the DNA
[Option ID = 2073]
4) Intrinsic pathway of apoptosis is regulated by Bax and Bcl2 wherein:
[Question ID = 520]
1. Bax stimulates apoptosis while Bcl2 inhibits apoptosis [Option ID = 2074]
2. Bax inhibits apoptosis while Bcl2 stimulates apoptosis [Option ID = 2075]
3. Both stimulate apoptosis [Option ID = 2076]
4. Both inhibit apoptosis [Option ID = 2077]
Correct Answer :
Bax stimulates apoptosis while Bcl2 inhibits apoptosis [Option ID = 2074]
5) Parkinson's disease is primarily due to degeneration of the:
[Question ID = 521]
1. Corticospinal tract [Option ID = 2078]
2. Cerebellum [Option ID = 2079]
3. Globus pallidus [Option ID = 2080]
4. Substantia nigra [Option ID = 2081]
Correct Answer :
Substantia nigra [Option ID = 2081]
6) Which one of the following is the most appropriate statement regarding folded proteins?
[Question ID = 522]
1. Tyrosine residues are always buried [Option ID = 2082]
2. Charged amino acid side chains are always buried [Option ID = 2083]
3. Non polar amino acid side chains are seldom buried [Option ID = 2084]
4. Charged amino acid side chains are seldom buried [Option ID = 2085]

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Correct Answer :
Charged amino acid side chains are seldom buried [Option ID = 2085]
7) Which of the following is NOT true about capsules and slime layers?
[Question ID = 523]
1. They consist of secreted material lying outside of the bacterial cell wall [Option ID = 2086]
2. They can prevent desiccation of bacteria cells [Option ID = 2087]
3. They are required for bacteria to grow normally in culture [Option ID = 2088]
4. They help bacteria resist phagocytosis by macrophages [Option ID = 2089]
Correct Answer :
They are required for bacteria to grow normally in culture [Option ID = 2088]
8) A patient suffering from pneumonia and tuberculosis was found to have very low CD4+T cells. In all probability the
PRIMARY causative infectious agent belongs to
[Question ID = 524]
1. Klebsiella family [Option ID = 2090]
2. Mycobacterium family [Option ID = 2091]
3. Retrovirus family [Option ID = 2092]
4. Streptococcus family [Option ID = 2093]
Correct Answer :
Retrovirus family [Option ID = 2092]
9) A living microbe with reduced virulence that is used for vaccination is considered
[Question ID = 525]
1. A toxoid [Option ID = 2094]
2. Dormant [Option ID = 2095]
3. Attenuated [Option ID = 2096]
4. Denatured [Option ID = 2097]
Correct Answer :
Attenuated [Option ID = 2096]
10) Which of the following can be described as 'a sequence that can be approximately thousand base pairs upstream or
downstream of a eukaryotic promoter and increases gene expression as much as 200fold.'?
[Question ID = 526]
1. CAAT box [Option ID = 2098]
2. Enhancer [Option ID = 2099]
3. Insulator [Option ID = 2100]
4. TATA box [Option ID = 2101]
Correct Answer :
Enhancer [Option ID = 2099]
11) Which interactions promote T cell anergy
[Question ID = 527]
1. CD28: CD44 [Option ID = 2102]
2. CD28: CD86 [Option ID = 2103]
3. PD1: PDL1 [Option ID = 2104]
4. CD40:CD62L [Option ID = 2105]
Correct Answer :
PD1: PDL1 [Option ID = 2104]
12) Some peptides and proteins have been used as drugs. Which of the following statements is not true?
[Question ID = 528]
1. Protein drugs suffer a disadvantage in that they could produce an immune response.
[Option ID = 2106]
2. Peptides and proteins generally show poor bioavailability
[Option ID = 2107]
3. Peptide drugs are susceptible to peptidase enzymes
[Option ID = 2108]
4. Peptide drugs are susceptible to nucleases
[Option ID = 2109]
Correct Answer :
Peptide drugs are susceptible to nucleases
[Option ID = 2109]

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13) During each cycle of chain elongation in translation, how many conformational changes does the ribosome undergo that
are coupled to GTP hydrolysis?
[Question ID = 529]
1. Zero [Option ID = 2110]
2. One [Option ID = 2111]
3. Two [Option ID = 2112]
4. Three [Option ID = 2113]
Correct Answer :
Two [Option ID = 2112]
14) The mammalian oocyte prior to sperm entry is arrested at what stage of cell division?
[Question ID = 530]
1. Prophase of mitosis [Option ID = 2114]
2. Prophase of meiosis [Option ID = 2115]
3. G1 phase of mitotic cell cycle [Option ID = 2116]
4. Metaphase of meiosis II [Option ID = 2117]
Correct Answer :
Metaphase of meiosis II [Option ID = 2117]
15) Patient centered case management approach for the treatment of tuberculosis is:
[Question ID = 531]
1. BLOT [Option ID = 2118]
2. DOTS [Option ID = 2119]
3. ROT [Option ID = 2120]
4. SOT [Option ID = 2121]
Correct Answer :
DOTS [Option ID = 2119]
16) Which of the following events occur during the stationary phase of bacterial growth?
P. Rise in cell number stops
Q. Spore formation in some Grampositive bacteria such as Bacillus subtilis
R. Cell size increases in some Gramnegative bacteria such as Escherichia coli
S. Growth rate of bacterial cells nearly equals their death rate
T. Decrease in peptidoglycan crosslinking
[Question ID = 532]
1. P, Q and S only
[Option ID = 2122]
2. P, S and T only
[Option ID = 2123]
3. Q, R and S only
[Option ID = 2124]
4. P, R and T only
[Option ID = 2125]
Correct Answer :
P, Q and S only
[Option ID = 2122]
17) The main function of muscle spindles is to:
[Question ID = 533]
1. Provide the specialised membrane that holds nicotinic receptors [Option ID = 2126]
2. Act as stretch receptors [Option ID = 2127]
3. Cause contraction of the muscle [Option ID = 2128]
4. Act as structural support for the muscles [Option ID = 2129]
Correct Answer :
Act as stretch receptors [Option ID = 2127]
18) This antihypertensive drug is contraindicated in patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis:
[Question ID = 534]
1. Clonidine [Option ID = 2130]
2. Terazosin [Option ID = 2131]
3. Nifedipine [Option ID = 2132]
4. Captopril [Option ID = 2133]
Correct Answer :

---

Captopril [Option ID = 2133]
19) Example(s) of major plasma proteins important for drug binding:
[Question ID = 535]
1. Lipoproteins
[Option ID = 2134]
2. Alpha1acidic glycoproteins
[Option ID = 2135]
3. Albumin
[Option ID = 2136]
4. All of these
[Option ID = 2137]
Correct Answer :
All of these
[Option ID = 2137]
20) Example(s) of an effectively irreversible alphaadrenergic receptor blocker.
[Question ID = 536]
1. Phentolamine [Option ID = 2138]
2. Phenoxybenzamine [Option ID = 2139]
3. Both [Option ID = 2140]
4. Neither [Option ID = 2141]
Correct Answer :
Phenoxybenzamine [Option ID = 2139]
21) Inclusion of a vasoconstrictor in the local anesthetic solution is least likely to prolong the action of:
[Question ID = 537]
1. Procaine [Option ID = 2142]
2. Mepivacaine [Option ID = 2143]
3. Lidocaine [Option ID = 2144]
4. Bupivacaine [Option ID = 2145]
Correct Answer :
Bupivacaine [Option ID = 2145]
22) Cholestasis causes
[Question ID = 538]
1. Jaundice [Option ID = 2146]
2. Decrease in serum bilirubin [Option ID = 2147]
3. Activation of cytochrome P450 [Option ID = 2148]
4. Increased synthesis of clotting factors [Option ID = 2149]
Correct Answer :
Jaundice [Option ID = 2146]
23) Which of the following antibodies are present in mammalian cells
[Question ID = 539]
1. IgG, IgM, IgE, IgD [Option ID = 2150]
2. IgG, IgM, IgE, IgK [Option ID = 2151]
3. IgG, IgM, IgF, IgK [Option ID = 2152]
4. IgG, IgD, IgF, IgE [Option ID = 2153]
Correct Answer :
IgG, IgM, IgE, IgD [Option ID = 2150]
24) Cytokine profile for Th2 Response includes
[Question ID = 540]
1. IL4, IL5 [Option ID = 2154]
2. IFNgamma, IL8 [Option ID = 2155]
3. IL1, IFNgamma [Option ID = 2156]
4. IL1, IL8 [Option ID = 2157]
Correct Answer :
IL4, IL5 [Option ID = 2154]
25) Forward and Side Scatter in flow cytometry gives:
[Question ID = 541]
1. Fluorescence enhanced by forward and side channels [Option ID = 2158]
2. Fluorescence quenched by scattering in forward and side channels [Option ID = 2159]

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3. Relative size and granularity of cell [Option ID = 2160]
4. Fluorescence levels emanating from inside and outside of cells [Option ID = 2161]
Correct Answer :
Relative size and granularity of cell [Option ID = 2160]
26) The central cytokine that mediates allergic response is
[Question ID = 542]
1. IL5 [Option ID = 2162]
2. IFNgamma [Option ID = 2163]
3. IL8 [Option ID = 2164]
4. IL13 [Option ID = 2165]
Correct Answer :
IFNgamma [Option ID = 2163]
27) Isotype matched antibody is used in flowcytometry to
[Question ID = 543]
1. Check for specificity of stain of test antibody [Option ID = 2166]
2. Check for autofluorescence of the cell [Option ID = 2167]
3. Check for bleed over of multiple fluophores [Option ID = 2168]
4. To set height of the histogram [Option ID = 2169]
Correct Answer :
Check for specificity of stain of test antibody [Option ID = 2166]
28) Which of the following hexoses are not epimers?
[Question ID = 544]
1. Glucose and mannose [Option ID = 2170]
2. Glucose and Gulose [Option ID = 2171]
3. Glucose and Allose [Option ID = 2172]
4. Glucose and galactose [Option ID = 2173]
Correct Answer :
Glucose and Allose [Option ID = 2172]
29) Mannich reaction involves the
[Question ID = 545]
1. Reactions between aldimines and methylene carbonyls
[Option ID = 2174]
2. Amino alkylation of an methylene carbonyls with formaldehyde and ammonia
[Option ID = 2175]
3. Formation of aminocarbonyl compound
[Option ID = 2176]
4. All of these
[Option ID = 2177]
Correct Answer :
All of these
[Option ID = 2177]
30) Wang resin is one of the standard peptide synthesis resin used with Fmoc (fluorenylmethoxycarbonyl chloride)
chemistry, the structure of the resin is represented as:
[Question ID = 546]
1. 2alkoxybenzyl alcohol functionalized polystyrene [Option ID = 2178]
2. 2alkoxybenzyl alcohol functionalized polyvinyl [Option ID = 2179]
3. 4alkoxybenzyl alcohol functionalized polystyrene [Option ID = 2180]
4. 4alkoxybenzyl alcohol functionalized polyvinyl [Option ID = 2181]
Correct Answer :
4alkoxybenzyl alcohol functionalized polystyrene [Option ID = 2180]

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31) The absolute configuration of following compounds is
[Question ID = 547]
1. 1(S); 2(S) [Option ID = 2182]
2. 1(S); 2(R) [Option ID = 2183]
3. 1(R); 2(S) [Option ID = 2184]
4. 1(R); 2(R) [Option ID = 2185]
Correct Answer :
1(S); 2(S) [Option ID = 2182]
32) The probable H NMR spectrum of 4chlorotoluene ( ClC
1

6 H CH
4
) will show value at:
3
[Question ID = 548]
1. s, 1.5 and d, 7.07.5 [Option ID = 2186]
2. t, 1.5 and m, 7.5 [Option ID = 2187]
3. s, 2.4 and d, 7.07.5 [Option ID = 2188]
4. t, 2.4 and m, 7.5 [Option ID = 2189]
Correct Answer :
s, 2.4 and d, 7.07.5 [Option ID = 2188]
33) Which of the following is correct representation of Hammett equation?
[Question ID = 549]
1. Log (K /K) = 1/rs
0
[Option ID = 2190]
2. Log (k /k) = s/r
0
[Option ID = 2191]
3. Log (k/k ) = r/s
0
[Option ID = 2192]
4. Log (k/k ) =rs
0
[Option ID = 2193]
Correct Answer :
Log (k/k ) =rs
0
[Option ID = 2193]
34) Compound B, the smelly component emitted by pulp mills, showed M at m/z 62 and also peaks at 63 and 64 in a
+
100:2.2:4.4 ratio. Fragment peaks were seen at m/z 15, 32 and 47.The 1H NMR spectrum of compound B consisted of only
a single peak. Which of the following represents the correct structure of compound B.
[Question ID = 550]
1. Dimethyl sulfoxide
[Option ID = 2194]
2. Thioethanol
[Option ID = 2195]
3. Dimethyl sulphide
[Option ID = 2196]
4. None of these
[Option ID = 2197]
Correct Answer :
Dimethyl sulphide
[Option ID = 2196]
35) A common target enzyme for nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs is
[Question ID = 551]
1. COX2 [Option ID = 2198]
2. CCK2 [Option ID = 2199]
3. CXCR [Option ID = 2200]
4. CDK2 [Option ID = 2201]
Correct Answer :
COX2 [Option ID = 2198]
36) TseTse fly is the vector of the pathogen
[Question ID = 552]
1. Wuchereria [Option ID = 2202]
2. Trypanosoma [Option ID = 2203]
3. Plasmodium [Option ID = 2204]
4. Leishmania [Option ID = 2205]
Correct Answer :

---

Trypanosoma [Option ID = 2203]
37) StructureActivity Relationships shows that the important binding interactions in morphine are the piperidine ring,
aromatic ring and hydroxyl groups. A diagram can be drawn which shows these functional groups and their relative
orientations. What is the term for this?
[Question ID = 553]
1. Pharmacodynamics [Option ID = 2206]
2. Pharmacokinetics [Option ID = 2207]
3. Bioisostere [Option ID = 2208]
4. Pharmacophore [Option ID = 2209]
Correct Answer :
Pharmacophore [Option ID = 2209]
38) Protein S will fold into its native conformation only when protein Q is present in the solution. However, protein Q can
fold into its native conformation without protein S. Protein Q , therefore, may function as a _____ for protein S.
[Question ID = 554]
1. Ligand [Option ID = 2210]
2. Molecular chaperone [Option ID = 2211]
3. Protein precursor [Option ID = 2212]
4. Structural motif [Option ID = 2213]
Correct Answer :
Molecular chaperone [Option ID = 2211]
39) Which of the following molecules is commonly used as a fluorophore?
[Question ID = 555]
1. Phenolphthlein
[Option ID = 2214]
2. Fluorescein
[Option ID = 2215]
3. Bromophenol blue
[Option ID = 2216]
4. All of these
[Option ID = 2217]
Correct Answer :
Fluorescein
[Option ID = 2215]
40) Name of the monomer used to produce Orlon is
[Question ID = 556]
1. Vinyl cyanide [Option ID = 2218]
2. Formaldehyde + Phenol [Option ID = 2219]
3. Adipic acid + Hexamethylenediamine [Option ID = 2220]
4. Dimethyl terephthalate + Ethylene glycol [Option ID = 2221]
Correct Answer :
Vinyl cyanide [Option ID = 2218]
41) Which of the following possess a SPcarbon in its structure?
[Question ID = 557]
1. CH =CClCH=CH
2
2
[Option ID = 2222]
2. CH =CHCH=CH
2
2
[Option ID = 2223]
3. CH =C=CH
2
2
[Option ID = 2224]
4. CH CH=CHCH=CCl
3
2
[Option ID = 2225]
Correct Answer :
CH =C=CH
2
2
[Option ID = 2224]
42) Citral, a natural compound isolated from lemon grass oil is

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[Question ID = 558]
1. An alkaloid [Option ID = 2226]
2. A terpinoid [Option ID = 2227]
3. An unnatural amino acid [Option ID = 2228]
4. A carotenoid [Option ID = 2229]
Correct Answer :
A terpinoid [Option ID = 2227]
43) Arrange the following compounds in order of their decreasing boiling points
a) CH CH
3
CH
2
CHO,
2
b) CH CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
OH,
2
c) H C
5
OC
2
H
2
,
5
d) CH CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CH
2
3
[Question ID = 559]
1. a > b > c > d
[Option ID = 2230]
2. c > b > a > d
[Option ID = 2231]
3. a > b > d > c
[Option ID = 2232]
4. b > a > d > c
[Option ID = 2233]
Correct Answer :
b > a > d > c
[Option ID = 2233]
44) CD is the difference between the absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light as a function of
wavelength. In the following (e=extinction, c=concentration, l= pathlength). Which one is incorrect?
[Question ID = 560]
1. CD=DA/(absorbance units)=4pq(degrees)/(180 ln )
10
[Option ID = 2234]
2. CD= [e (l) e
L
R (l)]lc
[Option ID = 2235]
3. CD = De (l)lc
[Option ID = 2236]
4. CD = ecl
[Option ID = 2237]
Correct Answer :
CD=DA/(absorbance units)=4pq(degrees)/(180 ln )
10
[Option ID = 2234]
45) Pernicious anemia is caused by
[Question ID = 561]
1. Auto antibodies to intrinsic factor [Option ID = 2238]
2. Auto ? antibodies to vitamin B
[Option ID = 2239]
12
3. Auto ? antibodies to RBC antigens [Option ID = 2240]
4. None [Option ID = 2241]
Correct Answer :
Auto antibodies to intrinsic factor [Option ID = 2238]
46) Atopic individuals
[Question ID = 562]
1. Show increased sensitivity to allergens [Option ID = 2242]
2. Are more prone to autoimmune disorders [Option ID = 2243]
3. Are resistant to bacterial infections [Option ID = 2244]
4. Resistant to viral infections [Option ID = 2245]
Correct Answer :
Show increased sensitivity to allergens [Option ID = 2242]

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47) Match the items in Group I with Group II:
Group I
Group II
A. Circular Dichroism
I. Dehydration
B. Xray Crystallography
II. Sedimentation Coefficient
C. Freezedrying
III. Secondary structure determination
D. Ultracentrifugation
IV. Tertiary structure determination

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 563]
1. A IV, B I, C II, D III
[Option ID = 2246]
2. A I, B IV, C III, D II
[Option ID = 2247]
3. A II, B III, C IV, D I
[Option ID = 2248]
4. A III, B IV, C I, D II
[Option ID = 2249]
Correct Answer :
A III, B IV, C I, D II
[Option ID = 2249]
48) __________ are inhibitory interneurons which modulate motor functions by sharpening the signals and
secrete__________ for exerting their function.
[Question ID = 564]
1. Renshaw cells; glycine [Option ID = 2250]
2. Red nuclei; LDopamine [Option ID = 2251]
3. Gamma neurons; glycine [Option ID = 2252]
4. Alpha neurons; Acetylcholine [Option ID = 2253]
Correct Answer :
Renshaw cells; glycine [Option ID = 2250]
49) Yeast two hybrid technique is used for the study of:
[Question ID = 565]
1. Protein and protein interactions
[Option ID = 2254]
2. DNA and Protein interactions
[Option ID = 2255]
3. RNA and Protein interactions
[Option ID = 2256]
4. All of these
[Option ID = 2257]
Correct Answer :
Protein and protein interactions
[Option ID = 2254]
50) Homeostatic regulation of feeding is controlled by
[Question ID = 566]
1. Hypothalamus and hind brain [Option ID = 2258]
2. Mid brain and hind brain [Option ID = 2259]
3. Higher cortical regions and hind brain [Option ID = 2260]
4. Limbic system [Option ID = 2261]
Correct Answer :
Hypothalamus and hind brain [Option ID = 2258]

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